Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
You have connected to your Cisco IOS router using SSH for remote management. You have entered the command “debug ip rip“ to verify that RIP updates are being sent and received by the router. You wait for 90 seconds and notice that no RIP updates are being sent or received. After reviewing the RIP configuration, you conclude that the configuration is fine. You also verify that logging to the vty lines is set to debugging. Why are you not seeing the RIP updates? A. You need to issue the logging monitor 7 command B. You need to wait longer since RIP updates are every 180 seconds C. Debugs are not available for vty sessions D. You need to enable RIP E. You need to connect to the console port first F. You need to issue the terminal monitor command Which of the following behaviors is applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch? (Choose two) A. Congestion management B. Shaping C. Policing D. Priority scheduling E. Round robin scheduling What is the purpose of the “service password-encryption“ command? A. It encrypts all passwords on your router. B. It encrypts the line console password only. C. It encrypts the vty password only. D. It is not a valid cisco command Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. What type of variable is being shown? Routers = [R1,R2,R3] A. List B. Dictionary C. Simple D. Unsigned integers Which command can you use to encrypt all current and future plain-text passwords that are stored in the running configuration? A. login B. service password-encryption C. enable secret D. username username password password E. crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024 F. username username secret password What option(s) are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Rapid elasticity B. Agile network access C. Measured service D. Proactive service Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two) A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. B. RSTP defines new port roles. C. RSTP defines no new port states. D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. This design will function as intended. B. Spanning-tree will need to be used. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. D. The connection between switches should be a trunk. E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol. What is the name of the protocol that is used by IEEE 802.1x devices to communicate with the authenticator and authentication server? A. EAP B. EAPoL C. RADIUS D. TACACS+ What command should you configure globally to enable a 15-minute recovery time for the port security errdisable state? A. errdisable recovery interval 15 B. errdisable recovery timer 15 C. errdisable recovery timer 900 D. errdisable recovery interval 900 What is the default security violation mode for port security on a Cisco 2960 Catalyst switch? A. Disable B. Shutdown C. Protect D. None E. Restrict F. Err-disable A user is experiencing a loss of end-to-end connectivity in an IPv4 network. You have verified that the name resolution entry is correct. Now you want to check whether any IP ACLs are set on the interface. Which command should you use to do so? A. show ip access-list B. show traceroute C. show ip route D. show ip interfaces https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/acl-issues.html Identify the protocols that can negotiate EtherChannel creation and maintenance. (Choose two) A. VTP B. LACP C. CHAP D. PAgP E. PPTP F. PAP https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/etherchannel-and-l3-redundancy/understanding-etherchannel.html What command will successfully change the configuration register so that a Cisco IOS 2900 series router will boot into ROM Monitor mode? A. Config-register 0x2104 B. Config-register 0x2105 C. Config-register 0x2101 D. Config-register 0x2102 E. Config-register 0x2120 F. Config-register 0x2103 G. Config-register 0x2106 In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN What is the name of the Cisco feature that allows for the identification of protocols that are traditionally hard to classify because of their operation? A. DSCP B. NBAR C. DTerm D. CBWFQ Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2? A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2. B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree. C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology. D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch. What are some perceived benefits of controller-based networks as compared to traditional networks? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind B. The use of APIs to mass-configure network devices, allowing for more consistency and fewer errors C. The use of DevOps approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity Examine the output provided. What statements are accurate about the configuration of OSPFv3? (Choose two) A. The [ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id] command enables OSPFv3 on an interface B. The [router-id router_id] command statically configures a name for the router within the OSPFv3 process C. The [ipv6 router ospf process-id] command assigns OSPF to a specific area D. 10.10.10.10 is the address of the interface participating in OSPFv3 routing In a split-MAC architecture, real-time functions such as encryption are handled in which of the following network entities? A. An access layer switch B. A distribution layer switch C. A wireless LAN controller D. A lightweight AP What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis What OSPF features have been updated for IPv6? (Choose two) A. It uses a 64-bit number instead of an Internet Protocol version 4, or IPv4 address for the router ID B. Enabled per-link, not per-network C. Adjacencies and next-hop attributes use the router ID as global addresses D. IPv6 is used for transport of the link-state advertisement, or LSA https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/configuring-ospfv3.html Which actions must be performed to implement SNMP access to the router? (Choose two) A. Configure a community access string with a read-write privileged to permit access to SNMP B. Authenticate access to MIB objects and functions as embedded passwords C. Set the system contact and location of the SNMP agent on the router D. Obtain values for the 5 minute exponentially moving average of the CPU busy percentage https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/network-management/snmp-v1-v2c-v3-overview-and-configuration.html Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses uses the highest address in the network range? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html Which is true in a spine-leaf architecture? (Choose two) A. Each leaf switch must connect to every spine switch. B. Each leaf switch must connect to one spine switch. C. Each spine switch must connect to every leaf switch. D. Each spine switch must connect to one leaf switch. Which DSCP marking group was created to be backward compatible with Internet Protocol Precedence (IPP) values? A. EF B. AF C. CS D. PF Which of the following commands globally enables the BPDU guard feature? A. spanning-tree portfast default B. spanning-tree portfast C. spanning-tree bpduguard enable D. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/performance-with-spanning-tree.html Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two) A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. D. The switch discards both the first and second frame. A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance? A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router. B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic. C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces. D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/inter-vlan-routing.html If you take the network 192.168.1.0/24 and create four subnets from it, what are the new subnet IDs? (Choose four) A. 192.168.1.128 B. 192.168.1.32 C. 192.168.1.96 D. 192.168.1.64 E. 192.168.1.192 F. 192.168.1.0 Which command could you enter to encrypt passwords? A. enable secret B. username {username} secret {password} C. service password-encryption D. All of the above E. None of the above Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses? A. 192.168.1.56/26 B. 192.168.1.56/27 C. 192.168.1.64/26 D. 192.168.1.64/27 Please choose the correct sequence of the following data encapsulation steps: 1. The layer 3 header is added to the data before being passed on the next layer. 2. A header is added to previous data and is passed to the Internet layer. 3. A trailer, usually the frame check sequence of FCS, and a header are added. 4. An application sends user data. A. 4, 3, 2, 1 B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. 4, 2, 1, 3 D. 3, 4, 2, 1 Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead? A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port? A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port. B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port. C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex. D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex. E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-1-internetworking/ethernet-networking.html Which of the following describes dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two) A. They are configured on Layer 2 switches B. They can choose an alternate path to a learned network when the current path no longer exists C. They are best used in small networks D. They are statically configured with remote networks E. They can choose the best path to a learned network when multiple paths exist Which port on a Cisco IOS ISR is used for initial management connectivity? A. Ethernet B. USB C. ADSL D. Console E. Aux F. Serial Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three) A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information. B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains. C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information. D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network. E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port. F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/developing-design-for-layer-2.html Regarding lightweight AP modes, which one of the following is true? A. An AP can operate in multiple modes at the same time. B. An AP only has one possible mode of operation. C. The Run mode is the default mode. D. The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis. Which state of the default STP configuration allows ports to listen for BPDUs but not send any? A. Listening B. Learning C. Blocking D. Forwarding In the virtualization world, the ___________ manages and allocates the host hardware for each VM. A. Host controller B. Hyperthreader C. Hypervisor D. Host service Which command is used to apply an ACL to an interface? A. access-group B. ip access-group C. ip access-list D. ip access-class E. access-class F. access-list Per the command output, with how many routers is router R9 full adjacent over its Gi0/0 interface? A. 7 B. 10 C. 5 D. 2 Which of the following commands is used to indicate the real true speed of the interface? A. no shutdown B. interface serial C. show controllers D. clockrate E. bandwidth https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/wan-technologies/serial-encapsulation.html Four OSPF routers connect to the same LAN. In a new election after all routers have been rebooted, which router wins the DR election? A. R4, router-id 4.4.4.4, priority 1 B. R3, router-id 3.3.3.3, priority 2 C. R1, router-id 1.1.1.1, priority 4 D. R2, router-id 2.2.2.2, priority 3 What are the considerations when using the “switchport trunk native vlan vlan_number“ command? (Choose three) A. It sets the native VLAN on the trunk to the specified VLAN number B. You must ensure that the other end of the trunk link is configured in the same way C. It sets allowed VLANs on a trunk link D. Traffic from this VLAN is sent untagged E. It adds specified VLANs to the existing list of allowed VLANs on a trunk link What is the field that is used on modern systems that allows an IP packet to be marked with a specific QoS value? A. EXP B. CoS C. DSCP D. Traffic Class Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1? A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment. B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree. C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge. D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge. You are troubleshooting the components involved in IPv6 end-to-end connectivity on a Mac computer. Please select the command you will use to check whether an ACL is attached to an interface. A. show ipv6 interface B. show ipv6 route C. show ipv6 access-list D. ping E. ipconfig F. ifconfig https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-ipv6-connectivity.html What are the functions of the active router when there is L3 redundancy? (Choose four) A. Sends out hello messages B. Knows the IP address of the virtual router C. Active forwarding of packets for the virtual router is assumed D. Default gateway ARP requests are responded to with the virtual router MAC E. Listens for periodic hello messages F. If the other router is not heard from, it assumes active forwarding of packets https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/etherchannel-and-l3-redundancy/gateway-redundancy.html Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses is used in DHCP assignment process before a host has a valid IP address? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources

These are the best CCNA training resources online:

Click Here to get the Cisco CCNA Gold Bootcamp, the most comprehensive and highest rated CCNA course online with a 4.8 star rating from over 30,000 public reviews. I recommend this as your primary study source to learn all the topics on the exam.

Want to take your practice tests to the next level? AlphaPrep’s purpose-built Cisco test engine has the largest question bank, adaptive questions, and advanced reporting which tells you exactly when you’re ready to pass the real exam. Click here for your free trial.

The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

The Cisco CCNA 200-301 practice exam tests include questions to test your knowledge and skills related to Cisco networking fundamentals, which helps you pass the actual exam.

The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Complete this form to get your score report

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources