Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Which of the following commands displays the process ID, router ID, reference bandwidth, and areas that are configured? A. show ipv6 ospf neighbor B. show ipv6 ospf C. show ipv6 route ospf D. show ipv6 ospf interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/ospfv3-configuration.html What is the purpose of the “service password-encryption“ command? A. It encrypts all passwords on your router. B. It encrypts the line console password only. C. It encrypts the vty password only. D. It is not a valid cisco command Refer to the diagram. What method of authentication is being used? A. Open authentication B. CCMP C. WEP D. 802.1x What is the number one design consideration for WANs? A. Number of people B. Number of sites connected C. Number of computers D. Number of resources What occurs when you enable the passive interface feature on a router interface that is running RIPv2? A. It suppresses the sending and receiving of routing updates on the interface B. It temporarily disables RIPv2 on the interface C. It suppresses the sending of routing updates out the interface D. It suppresses the sending of Hello packets out the interface E. It suppresses the sending and receiving of Hello packets on the interface What is the first step in determining the OSPFv3 router-id? A. Are there loopback interfaces B. Are the interfaces up, up C. Are there physical interfaces with IPv4 addresses D. Are the router IDs manually assigned by the administrator Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 Think about a policing function that is currently working, and also think about a shaping function that is also currently working. That is, the current bit rate of traffic exceeds the respective policing and shaping rates. Which statements are true about these features? (Choose two) A. The policer may or may not be discarding packets. B. The policer is definitely discarding packets. C. The shaper may or may not be queuing packets to slow down the sending rate. D. The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate. You have a Class B IP address with a subnet mask of /22. How many bits were borrowed from the host portion of the address? A. Six B. Five C. Seven D. Nine E. Eight F. Four In what security zone are the public web servers located? A. DMZ B. Inside C. Outside D. Campus In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN When should static routes be used? (Choose two) A. In networks that are expected to scale B. In more complex networks C. When you want to create a quick ad hoc route D. In smaller networks with only simple routing needs https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/static-routing.html When a wildcard mask is presented in binary, what do the zeros (0) indicate? A. The network portion of the wildcard mask B. The host portion of the wildcard mask C. Ignore the corresponding bit in the IP address D. Match the corresponding bit in the IP address E. Match the corresponding bit in the subnet mask Which of the following commands displays the enabled OSPFv3 interfaces, along with the adjacent OSPF neighbors connected to them? A. show ipv6 ospf neighbor B. show ipv6 ospf C. show ipv6 route ospf D. show ipv6 ospf interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/ospfv3-configuration.html Which statements describe the function of ACLs? (Choose two) A. They are used to verify packet source addresses B. Multiple ACLs can be applied per protocol using the ip access-group command C. Outbound ACLs are processed by the ACL prior to being routed to the outbound interface D. Extended ACLs can check destination addresses, protocols, and port numbers https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? A. learning B. listening C. discarding D. forwarding https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. Routing tables can be populated in a number of different ways. Which of the following describes the dynamic routing route type? A. Router attached to this network B. The router interface has a local IP address C. A system administrator manually enters static routes directly into the configuration D. Learned by exchanging routing information E. Used when no explicit route to a destination is found https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/identification-of-the-path.html In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities? A. The address of the attacker B. The address of the reflector C. The address of the victim D. The address of the router Which options are true regarding the operation of ROM in a Cisco router? (Choose two) A. POST brings up the router on start-up B. The ROM monitor includes a low-level operating system that is used for manufacturing and password recovery C. Bootstrap tests and troubleshoots the Cisco IOS software D. Power-on self test or POST tests the basic functionality of the router hardware https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/network-management/router-internal-components-overview.html Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two) A. Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. B. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. C. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, and will save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config D. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, but will not save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config You have set up NAT on your edge router for private to public translations. Which of the following can be verified with the show ip nat translations command? (Choose three) A. The inside interface and outside interface B. The public IPv4 address that a private IPv4 address was translated to C. The private IPv4 address that was translated D. The NAT pool that is being used E. The ACL that is being used F. The public IPv4 address that the translated packet is destined Which of the following attributes do QoS tools manage? (Choose three) A. Bandwidth B. Delay C. Load D. MTU E. Loss Consider the following scenario: Host A has IP address 192.168.6.3 and MAC address 0800:0111:3333. Host B has IP address 192.168.7.3 and MAC address 0800:0222:4444. The router has IP address 192.168.7.1 and MAC address 0800:0444:1111. When Host B receives a packet from Host A, the frame contains the source and destination IP and MAC addresses. What should be the source IP address? A. 0800:0444:1111 B. 192.168.7.3 C. 192.168.6.3 D. 0800:0222:4444 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html Looking at the exhibit, what key:value pair option has a value that is numeric in nature? A. ”upTime”: ”45 days, 13:36:14.80”, B. ”lastUpdated”: ”2019-10-29 02:52:00”, C. ”managementIpAddress”: ”10.230.1.1”, D. ”lastUpdateTime”: 1572317520439 Which of the following four TCP/IP layers determines the best path through the network? A. Network Access B. Transport C. Internet D. Application https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html During a maintenance window, you make some changes to R2. You document these changes in your configuration management system. Later that night, you are called in to fix an issue that requires you to make additional changes to R2. The next morning your co-worker addresses another issue but this time on R1. All of these changes are documented properly but neither you or nor your coworker discuss the changes. These changes stay implemented for months. What is this best described as? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 Which of the following describes an Unspecified IPv6 address? A. ::1 B. Starts with FE80::/10 C. Represented by :: D. Starts with 2000::/3 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html Using the exhibit as a reference, what is a valid key? A. ”lastUpdateTime”: 1572317520439 B. ”CSR1000V” C. ”role” D. ”platformId”: The Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards? A. WEP B. WPA2 C. 802.11 D. AES You need to verify the various file systems that are available on your Cisco IOS router. Which command can you use to accomplish this? A. show ram B. show nvram C. show flash D. show control-plane host open-ports E. show file systems Which command can be used to prevent syslog messages from interrupting the commands that you are currently typing in? A. no login B. enable secret C. no exec D. transport input telnet E. service password-encryption F. logging synchronous G. exec-timeout Which cloud service model gives a customer complete control over the virtual hardware components, including processor performance, network connectivity, how much memory and storage space is required, and potentially the operating system that is preinstalled? A. SaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. TaaS Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two) A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information. B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment. C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information. D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment. E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-1-internetworking/data-encapsulation.html Which options are available for obtaining a license file? (Choose two) A. Cisco Registration Manager B. Cisco License Manager C. Cisco Portal D. Cisco PAK E. Cisco License Registration Portal F. Cisco Manager Which hash method is used by default when using the enable secret Cisco IOS command? A. 3DES B. MD5 C. SHA-0 D. HMAC You are troubleshooting the components involved in IPv6 end-to-end connectivity on a Mac computer. Please select the command you will use to check whether the Mac has the default IPv6 gateway set. A. show ipv6 interface B. show ipv6 route C. show ipv6 access-list D. ping E. ipconfig F. ifconfig https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-ipv6-connectivity.html Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP What function is provided by the router ID in an OSPF network? A. It is used to determine the best path B. It allows routing towards external networks or toward the Internet C. It exchanges hello packets to establish neighbor adjacencies between routers D. It is used to uniquely identify routers in the OSPF routing domain https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/introducing-ospf.html In the virtualization world, the ___________ manages and allocates the host hardware for each VM. A. Host controller B. Hyperthreader C. Hypervisor D. Host service Which statements describe how to configure and verify basic NTP protocol? (Choose two) A. To configure an NTP master clock, execute commands in the global configuration mode B. Commands should be executed in the user EXEC mode when displaying the status of NTP C. When verifying the status of NTP associations, commands should be executed in the user EXEC mode D. Configuring a higher stratum value indicates a higher priority https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/starting-a-router.html Which of the following commands will display one line of information per port channel? A. show etherchannel summary B. show interface port-channel C. show etherchannel port-channel https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/etherchannel-and-l3-redundancy/configuring-etherchannel.html Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification Suppose two APs are located near each other. Which channel use strategy will result in nonoverlapping channels for Wi-Fi use? (Choose two) A. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and channel 2 on AP-B. B. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and 5-GHz channel 48 on AP-B. C. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 40 on AP-B. D. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 37 on AP-B. You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements? A. 10.188.31.0/26 B. 10.188.31.0/25 C. 10.188.31.0/28 D. 10.188.31.0/27 E. 10.188.31.0/29 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/variable-length-subnet-mask.html Which command is used to create a standard numbered IPv4 ACL? A. access-list numbered B. ip access-list C. numbered access-list D. access-list ip E. access-list Imagine you configured OSPFv2 in a small lab network. Which of the following answers list a condition that could keep the routers in your lab from learning all the routes to all the IPv4 routes in your small lab network? (Choose two) A. An ACL could be blocking router advertisements. B. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF area and with the same IPv4 subnet mask. C. Any physical layer problem that would prevent two neighboring routers from being able to ping each others IPv4 addresses in the subnet that exists between the two routers. D. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF process ID on the router ospf command. What information is returned from the “show spanning-tree vlan vlan_id“ command? (Choose three) A. Interface, role, and cost information B. Root ID information C. Number of switches on the network D. Bridge ID information E. Routing protocol What is the best definition of a WAN? A. Remote access to resources across a high speed link B. Local access to resources C. Local Internet access D. Core network resources A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two) A. The LLQ B. Queue 1 C. Queue 2 D. Queue 3 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch? (Choose two) A. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1. B. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5. C. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards. D. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses. E. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link. F. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled. What option(s) are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Rapid elasticity B. Agile network access C. Measured service D. Proactive service Which command is used to disable unused switchports? A. no shutdown B. off C. disable D. shutdown E. quit

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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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