Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Which command displays information about security options configured on an interface? A. show port-security interface [interface-id] B. show port-security [interface-id] C. show port-security[address] D. show security [interface-id] Which of the following describes the automatic IP addressing mechanism when configuring a DHCP server? A. A network administrator assigns an IP address to a client B. A client is assigned an IP address for a limited amount of time C. A non-expiring IP address is assigned to a client https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/router-as-a-dhcp-server.html You are implementing IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration for your end stations. What must be the prefix of the IPv6 network in order for the clients to autoconfigure their addresses? A. /48 B. /56 C. /64 D. /96 E. /32 Which of the following describes a Global IPv6 address? A. ::1 B. Starts with FE80::/10 C. Represented by :: D. Starts with 2000::/3 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two) A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached. B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached. C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached. D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type. E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type. F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type. A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller? A. A Northbound Interface B. A Southbound Interface C. Data plane functions D. Control plane functions Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers? A. Switch1 B. Switch2 C. Switch3 D. Switch4 Which hash method is used by default when using the enable secret Cisco IOS command? A. 3DES B. MD5 C. SHA-0 D. HMAC What steps are involved in configuring a SPAN session? (Choose three) A. Associate a SPAN session number with the source port of VLANs B. Associate a SPAN number with the destination C. Instruct the router to copy all traffic that it sends and receives D. Verify the configuration E. Configure the destination port as a source port What is the multicast address for hello packets by default on OSPFv3? A. 224.0.0.6 B. FF02::A C. FF02::5 D. 224.0.0.5 Which statements correctly define VLANs? (Choose two) A. VLANs can span many different Layer 3 routers B. VLANs can span many different Layer 2 switches C. VLANs divide a single physical collision domain into multiple logical collision domains D. VLANs divide a single physical LAN into multiple logical LANs Which of the following behaviors are applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch? (Choose two) A. Shaping B. Policing C. Priority scheduling D. Round-robin scheduling Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 What is the purpose of the “logging synchronous“ command? A. It enables synchronous sequence numbering for syslog messages B. It enables password checking on the vty and console lines C. It sets an inactivity timer for the console and vty lines D. It prevents syslog messages from interrupting current commands you are typing in E. It disables timestamps for syslog messages Identify the statements that describe how ACLs function? (Choose two) A. They use top-down processing B. They always prevent users outside a network from gaining access C. A match results in immediate execution D. The end of the ACL has an implicit allow any https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html Which DSCP marking group was created to be backward compatible with Internet Protocol Precedence (IPP) values? A. EF B. AF C. CS D. PF Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password, rather than storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other? A. Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted. B. Using hashes is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for encryption. C. Using encryption is preferred because it provides stronger password protection. D. Using encryption is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for hashes. Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three) A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two) A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/packet-delivery-process.html How can you test that DNS is working? A. View the arp cache table B. View the DNS cache C. Ping based on the name of the device D. Ping based on the IP address What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow What is the correct order for the DHCP process? A. Offer, Discover, Acknowledge, Request B. Request, Acknowledge, Discover, Offer C. Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge D. Request, Offer, Discover, Acknowledge Review the topology. All subnets exist in OSPF area 0. Which command, if issued on R3, would show all the LSAs known by R3? A. Show running-config B. Show ip ospf interface C. Show ip ospf neighbors D. Show ip route ospf E. Show ip ospf database How many subnets are created from a Class C addressing space that is using a /29 subnet mask? A. 16 B. 128 C. 64 D. 32 E. 8 F. 4 Which is true in a spine-leaf architecture? (Choose two) A. Each leaf switch must connect to every spine switch. B. Each leaf switch must connect to one spine switch. C. Each spine switch must connect to every leaf switch. D. Each spine switch must connect to one leaf switch. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. This design will function as intended. B. Spanning-tree will need to be used. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. D. The connection between switches should be a trunk. E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol. You need to configure an IP address on your serial interface. Which command should you use from privileged EXEC mode to access the appropriate configuration mode and set the IP address? A. ip default-gateway B. ip address ip-address subnet-mask C. interface type number D. configure terminal https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/configuring-a-router.html R1, R2, R3, and R4 have their Fast Ethernet 0/0 interfaces attached to the same VLAN. A network engineer has typed a configuration for each router by using a word processor. He will later copy and paste the configuration into the routers. Examine the following exhibit, which lists configuration for the four routers, as typed by the network engineer. Assuming that all four routers can ping each other’s LAN IP addresses after the configuration has been applied, choose the routers that will be able to form a neighbor relationship with the other routers on the LAN. (You can assume that, if not shown in the exhibit, all other related parameters are still set to their defaults.) (Choose two) A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. None of the routers will exchange routing information. Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS In the virtualization world, the ___________ manages and allocates the host hardware for each VM. A. Host controller B. Hyperthreader C. Hypervisor D. Host service Within a deny statement for an IPv6 ACL, what are the possible values for the prefix? (Choose two) A. Source or destination IPv6 host address B. Wildcard for the source C. Any prefix as an abbreviation for the IPv6 prefix ::/0 D. Name or number of an Internet protocol You are configuring PAT on your Cisco IOS router? Which keyword in the “ip nat inside source“ command is used to enable PAT? A. Interface B. Overload C. List D. PAT E. Pool An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data private while also providing good QoS services? (Choose two) A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN Which IOS command always displays OSPF hello timer settings? A. show ip protocols B. show ip route C. show ip ospf interface D. show ip ospf neighbor E. debug ip ospf events You need to back up the Cisco IOS image for your 2900 ISR. Which command can be used to verify the size of the IOS image that you will be backing up? A. show startup-config B. show vlan brief C. show version D. show platform nvram E. show running-config F. show flash Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco TelePresence video network? (Choose two) A. One-way delay < 200 ms B. Round-trip delay < 200 ms C. Loss < 5% D. Loss < 0.05% E. Jitter < 100 ms F. Jitter < 50 ms Which command is used to disable CDP on an interface? A. no lldp enable B. no run C. no lldp run D. no cdp enable E. no enable F. no cdp run You have HRSP configured on your network with R1 as the active default gateway and R2 as the standby default gateway. What is the best way to configure PC1 to ensure that it is using a redundant default gateway? A. Create a default route to R2, in case R1 goes down B. Ensure that the same priority is assigned to R1 and R2 C. Ensure that it is assigned the virtual default gateway D. Ensure that it is configured with two default gateways Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 How do packet forwarding and path determination function on a router? (Choose two) A. Routers must maintain a common routing table to ensure that other routers know about changes in the network B. The destination IP address in the packet defines the packet destination C. A router determines the source of the information using the first number in each line of the show ip route output D. The routing table holds only one entry per network In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe? A. the operation of VTP B. a method of VLAN trunking C. an approach to wireless LAN communication D. the process for root bridge selection E. VLAN pruning https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-5-virtual-lans-vlans/vlans-review.html Refer to the diagram. What is the official name of the network (Network A) that is broadcast by an AP? A. SSID B. BSS C. ESS D. SRDID Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification You are configuring dynamic NAT on your Cisco IOS router that is connected to your ISP. What would be used to define the private IPv4 addresses that can be translated to public IPv4 addresses? (Choose three) A. An access list B. An IP NAT pool C. The ip nat inside command D. The ip nat outside command E. The ip nat inside source list command Which command would you use to enter the OSPF routing configuration mode? A. Router(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 0 B. Router(config)#router ospf 1 C. Router(config)#network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 D. Router(config)#router ospf https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/single-area-ospf.html Which STP standards cannot be used when you have a mixed topology with Cisco and non-Cisco devices? (Choose three) A. Rapid PVST+ B. MSTP C. RSTP D. PVST+ E. STP Which command could you enter to encrypt passwords? A. enable secret B. username {username} secret {password} C. service password-encryption D. All of the above E. None of the above The Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards? A. WEP B. WPA2 C. 802.11 D. AES A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two) A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. D. The switch discards both the first and second frame. Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses is used in DHCP assignment process before a host has a valid IP address? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html Regarding lightweight AP modes, which one of the following is true? A. An AP can operate in multiple modes at the same time. B. An AP only has one possible mode of operation. C. The Run mode is the default mode. D. The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis. You want to disable the negotiation of trunking for all FastEthernet ports. Which commands are required to do this? (Choose two) A. interface range FastEthernet 0/1-24 B. show vlan brief C. switchport access vlan 2 D. switchport mode access The IP component of TCP/IP determines where packets of data are routed based on their destination addresses. IP has certain characteristics that are related to how it manages this function. Identify the characteristics of the Internet Protocol. (Choose three) A. An Internet Protocol version 4, or IPv4, address contains 32 bits B. IP is a layer 3 media-independent connectionless protocol that uses hierarchical logical addressing and provides best-effort service C. IP works at the transport layer of the TCP/IP stack D. An IPv4 header address field contains a 32-bit binary value that represents the IP address of the sender E. An IPv4 header address field contains a 24-bit binary value that represents the IP address of the receiving endpoint https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html In a split-MAC architecture, real-time functions such as encryption are handled in which of the following network entities? A. An access layer switch B. A distribution layer switch C. A wireless LAN controller D. A lightweight AP

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources

These are the best CCNA training resources online:

Click Here to get the Cisco CCNA Gold Bootcamp, the most comprehensive and highest rated CCNA course online with a 4.8 star rating from over 30,000 public reviews. I recommend this as your primary study source to learn all the topics on the exam.

Want to take your practice tests to the next level? AlphaPrep’s purpose-built Cisco test engine has the largest question bank, adaptive questions, and advanced reporting which tells you exactly when you’re ready to pass the real exam. Click here for your free trial.

The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

The Cisco CCNA 200-301 practice exam tests include questions to test your knowledge and skills related to Cisco networking fundamentals, which helps you pass the actual exam.

The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Complete this form to get your score report

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources