Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Identify the features of UDP. (Choose two) A. Connection oriented B. Best effort C. Supports applications such as Secure Shell, or SSH, FTP, and DNS D. Data recovery E. Limited error checking https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/tcpip-transport-layer.html Of the different public cloud WAN options, which have quality of service capabilities to ensure end-to-end application requirements? (Choose three) A. Internet B. Intercloud exchange C. Ethernet WAN D. MPLS VPN E. Internet VPN You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this? A. ip default-gateway B. ip route C. ip default-network D. ip address dhcp E. ip address dynamic Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands In what security zone are the public web servers located? A. DMZ B. Inside C. Outside D. Campus What are the characteristics of the client VTP mode? (Choose two) A. Allows creating, modifying, or deleting VLANs B. Does not allow creating, modifying, or deleting VLANs C. Synchronizes VLAN configuration D. Allows creating, modifying, and deleting local VLANs only Which of the following commands is used to indicate the real true speed of the interface? A. no shutdown B. interface serial C. show controllers D. clockrate E. bandwidth https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/wan-technologies/serial-encapsulation.html Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco TelePresence video network? (Choose two) A. One-way delay < 200 ms B. Round-trip delay < 200 ms C. Loss < 5% D. Loss < 0.05% E. Jitter < 100 ms F. Jitter < 50 ms Which layer of the OSI model ensures data traffic reliability and the breaking down of large files into smaller segments? A. Session B. Network C. Transport D. Application E. Data-link F. Presentation https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html Which command is used to disable the active technology package for a license? A. no license save B. license clear C. no license boot module D. license boot module E. no license install What is the election of a designated port for a segment based on? A. The lowest BID B. The lowest root path cost C. The lowest MAC address D. The lowest priority You have the Class B network 172.16.0.0/16 and want to create 16 subnets. What will the new subnet mask be for the 16 subnets? A. /18 B. /19 C. /21 D. /17 E. /22 F. /20 Which statement is true about the subnet masks /12, /20, and /28? A. They all have the same number of network bits B. They all have the same block size of 16 C. They all create only 16 subnets D. They all have the same number of host bits What occurs on a router when you issue the command “ipv6 enable“ in interface configuration mode? A. Nothing will happen until you issue the ipv6 unicast-routing command as well B. The interface will automatically create a link-local address using EUI-64 for the interface portion C. The interface will be enabled for DHCPv6 D. The interface will automatically create a link-local address using a random generator for the interface portion Four OSPF routers connect to the same LAN. In a new election after all routers have been rebooted, which router wins the DR election? A. R4, router-id 4.4.4.4, priority 1 B. R3, router-id 3.3.3.3, priority 2 C. R1, router-id 1.1.1.1, priority 4 D. R2, router-id 2.2.2.2, priority 3 Which of the following components of a network is responsible for translating data and providing connection points for media? A. Endpoints B. Routers C. Interconnections D. Switches https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/the-functions-of-networking.html Regarding lightweight AP modes, which one of the following is true? A. An AP can operate in multiple modes at the same time. B. An AP only has one possible mode of operation. C. The Run mode is the default mode. D. The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis. Which DSCP Assured Forwarding value provides the worst drop and worst queue performance? A. AF41 B. AF43 C. AF11 D. AF13 Which IPv6 header field specifies the maximum number of hops that an IPv6 packet can take? A. Flow label B. Time to live C. Next header D. Hop limit E. Traffic class F. Extension header Which hash method is used by default when using the enable secret Cisco IOS command? A. 3DES B. MD5 C. SHA-0 D. HMAC Routing tables can be populated in a number of different ways. Which of the following describes the default route type. A. Router attached to this network B. The router interface has a local IP address C. A system administrator manually enters static routes directly into the configuration D. Learned by exchanging routing information E. Used when no explicit route to a destination is found https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/identification-of-the-path.html Which application(s) would Jitter and Delay not be a concern for the users experience? A. Online Gaming. B. VoIP. C. Web browsers. D. videoconferencing. You have implemented DAI on a Layer 2 switch in your network. Now you want to monitor the ARP message rates with an average of four received ARP messages a second. Which command(s) would need to be utilized to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. ip arp inspection limit rate 8 burst interval 2 B. ip arp inspection limit rate 4 burst interval 2 C. ip arp inspection limit rate 10 burst interval 5 D. ip arp inspection limit rate 20 burst interval 5 When creating a trunk port, which “switchport mode“ option sets the trunking mode to access unconditionally? A. access B. dot1q-tunnel C. trunk D. private-vlan E. dynamic What is the name of the Cisco product that offers a number of rack-mountable server configurations intended to be used in data centers? A. ASA B. KVM C. CRC D. UCS Which code represents a route inside an area in which it belongs? A. IS - ISIS Interarea B. OI - OSPF Inter C. DCE - Destination D. O - OSPF Intra Which protocol number represents ICMPv6? A. 89 B. 88 C. 17 D. 1 E. 58 F. 6 In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities? A. The address of the attacker B. The address of the reflector C. The address of the victim D. The address of the router Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data private while also providing good QoS services? (Choose two) A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN Which statements reflect the operation of OSPF neighbor states? (Choose two) A. The master and slave routers exchange one or more database description package, or DBD, packets, putting the routers in the full state B. When routers start sending link-state requests, or LSRs, they are in the loading state C. In the exchange state, the designated router, or DR, and backup designated router, or BDR, establish adjacencies with each router in the network D. When all link-state requests, or LSRs, have been satisfied for a given router, the adjacent routers are considered synchronized and in the full state https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/an-overview-of-ospf/link-state-databases.html What is used to determine the MAC address of a known IPv6 address? A. ARPv6 B. DHCP C. ARP D. DHCPv6 E. Router discovery F. Neighbor discovery Which commands will disable DTP on an interface? (Choose two) A. Switchport mode access B. Switchport trunk encapsulation ISL C. Switchport mode trunk D. Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q E. Switchport nonegotiate What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN? A. ping address B. tracert address C. traceroute address D. arp address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/troubleshooting-switched-network.html At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops? A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/redundant-topologies.html Wired Ethernet and Wi-Fi are based on which two IEEE standards, respectively? A. 802.1, 802.3 B. 802.1, 802.3 C. 802.3, 802.11 D. 802.11, 802.3 You need to create a wildcard mask for the entire Class B private IPv4 address space; 172.16.0.0/16 through 172.31.0.0/16. What is the wildcard mask? A. 0.0.15.255 B. 0.15.255.255 C. 0.0.31.255 D. 0.31.255.255 E. 0.0.7.255 F. 0.7.255.255 Which command is used to set an inactivity timer for the vty lines on your Cisco IOS switch? A. transport input telnet B. service password-encryption C. no login D. enable secret E. privileged F. no exec G. exec-timeout Which is true in a spine-leaf architecture? (Choose two) A. Each leaf switch must connect to every spine switch. B. Each leaf switch must connect to one spine switch. C. Each spine switch must connect to every leaf switch. D. Each spine switch must connect to one leaf switch. Which of the following statements describe a distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two) A. Each router builds its own internal map of the network topology B. Update messages are propagated to all routers running the same routing protocol C. Periodic update messages are sent whether there is a change in the network or not D. Only concerned with how far and in what direction the destination is https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/dynamic-routing.html Which of the following connections require a crossover cable? (Choose three) A. Router to router B. Router to switch C. Switch to PC D. PC to router E. Switch to switch When comparing controller-based networks and traditional networks what are some perceived benefits from a controller-based perspective? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow the entire network to be instantiated and not just a single device at a time B. The use of automation through APIs that enable data-driven models C. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity What is the first thing a Cisco router does as part of its initial startup? A. Finds and loads the configuration file B. Performs software initialization C. Runs the power-on self test, or POST, to test the hardware D. Finds and loads the Cisco Internetwork Operating System, or 10S, image https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/starting-a-router.html Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 Identify the information that must match between routers in order to form an OSPF adjacency. (Choose two) A. Area ID B. Router ID C. Neighbors D. Hello and dead intervals https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/introducing-ospf.html In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN Which command is used to ensure that R2 advertises 203.0.113.0/29 to R1 instead of 203.0.113.0/24 to R1? A. network B. maximum-paths C. version 2 D. auto-summary E. no auto-summary The Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards? A. WEP B. WPA2 C. 802.11 D. AES Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B Which STP standards cannot be used when you have a mixed topology with Cisco and non-Cisco devices? (Choose three) A. Rapid PVST+ B. MSTP C. RSTP D. PVST+ E. STP Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in? A. Traffic classification B. Traffic shaping C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic policing What are the purposes of a dynamic routing protocol? (Choose three) A. Ensuring you never have routing loops B. The discovery of remote networks C. Ensuring there are no configuration errors D. Choosing the best path to destination networks E. Maintaining up-to-date routing information With IEEE 802.1x, which role does a LAN switch typically play? A. Authentication server B. Supplicant C. Translator D. Authenticator

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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