Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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Which cloud service model provides access to an application that is built, monitored, and offered by the cloud provider? A. TaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. SaaS Which of the following commands globally enables the BPDU guard feature? A. spanning-tree portfast default B. spanning-tree portfast C. spanning-tree bpduguard enable D. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/performance-with-spanning-tree.html What is the correct sequence of the following data de-encapsulation steps in the order that they occur? 1. Layer 2 control information in the header is read and interpreted. 2. The trailer, frame check sequence, or FCS, is checked to see whether errors exist in the data. 3. The remaining data is passed to the next layer with its layer 2 header and trailer stripped. A. 1, 2, 3 B. 3, 2, 1 C. 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 3, 1 E. 3, 1, 2 Which of the following attributes do QoS tools manage? (Choose three) A. Bandwidth B. Delay C. Load D. MTU E. Loss Routing tables can be populated in a number of different ways. Which of the following describes the static routing route type. A. Router attached to this network B. The router interface has a local IP address C. A system administrator manually enters static routes directly into the configuration D. Learned by exchanging routing information E. Used when no explicit route to a destination is found https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/identification-of-the-path.html Which command is used to ensure that a switch interface will never become a trunk and remain a member of a single VLAN? A. Switchport mode trunk B. Switchport mode access C. Switchport nonegotiate D. Switchport access vlan vlan-number E. Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q You have verified the interface status with the “show interface“ command. What other steps should you consider when troubleshooting the physical connectivity between devices? (Choose three) A. Make sure you have the correct type of cable for the connection you are making B. Try replacing a suspect cable with a known good cable C. Restart the router D. Ensure the interface is enabled E. Upgrade the router\'s IOS How are PDUs handled during the peer-communication process? (Choose two) A. The Internet layer encapsulates data and attaches a header to create a PDU known as a frame B. Header information within a PDU is required and can include information such as source and destination logical addressing C. The link layer provides a service to the network layer by encapsulating the network-layer packet into a PDU called a segment D. The application layer protocol begins the process by delivering PDUs to the transport layer https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/tcpip-internet-layer.html Which configuration mode would you use to configure a particular port on a switch? A. Controller configuration mode B. User EXEC mode C. Global configuration mode D. Interface configuration mode https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html How do EUI-64 interface ID assignments work? (Choose two) A. 16-bit 0xFFFE is inserted at the 24th bit of the MAC address to create a unique interface identifier. B. In the first bit of the Organizational Unique ID, or OUI, bit 8 indicates the scope: 1 for global and 2 for local C. The EUI-64 standard stretches MAC addresses from 48 to 56 bits D. Most burned-in addresses are globally scoped; therefore bit 7 will usually be 0 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN What protocols exist to negotiate EtherChannel creation and maintenance? (Choose two) A. LACP B. VTP C. PAgP D. STP Which statements correctly define unique local unicast addresses? (Choose two) A. They are not routable B. They are identified by the prefix FE80::/10 C. They are identified by the prefix 2000::/3 D. They are identified by the prefix FC00::/7 E. They are routable in your private network F. They are globally routable You are subnetting the 172.16.0.0/16 network so that you have 100 subnets. How many bits do you need to borrow, what is the new subnet mask, and how many hosts will be in each subnet? (Choose three) A. There will be 254 possible hosts in each subnet B. There will be 510 possible hosts in each subnet C. /23 is the new subnet mask D. 7 bits will be borrowed E. 8 bits will be borrowed F. /24 is the new subnet mask You are tasked with configuring a switch so that it can be accessed remotely. What do you need to configure in order to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. The interface range in use B. A hostname for the switch C. An IP address and subnet mask D. A default gateway https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html Which command could you enter to encrypt passwords? A. enable secret B. username {username} secret {password} C. service password-encryption D. All of the above E. None of the above What is the administrative distance of RIPv2? A. 110 C. 90 D. 100 E. 1 F. 120 G. 5 Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. R1, R2, R3, and R4 have their Fast Ethernet 0/0 interfaces attached to the same VLAN. A network engineer has typed a configuration for each router by using a word processor. He will later copy and paste the configuration into the routers. Examine the following exhibit, which lists configuration for the four routers, as typed by the network engineer. Assuming that all four routers can ping each other’s LAN IP addresses after the configuration has been applied, choose the routers that will be able to form a neighbor relationship with the other routers on the LAN. (You can assume that, if not shown in the exhibit, all other related parameters are still set to their defaults.) (Choose two) A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. None of the routers will exchange routing information. Suppose two APs are located near each other. Which channel use strategy will result in nonoverlapping channels for Wi-Fi use? (Choose two) A. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and channel 2 on AP-B. B. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and 5-GHz channel 48 on AP-B. C. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 40 on AP-B. D. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 37 on AP-B. Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B Which of the following statements are correct about VLANs? (Choose three) A. The default VLAN is VLAN 1 B. VLAN 1 should be deleted for security reasons C. All ports are a member of VLAN 1 by default D. A VLAN must be configured on a switch before it can forward traffic for that VLAN E. Switches do not need the VLAN configured in order to forward traffic for it F. All ports are a member of no VLAN by default G. The default VLAN is VLAN 1000 You are troubleshooting a connectivity issue on the Branch router when you realize that a ping test to the destination network is not successful. The Branch and corresponding HQ router have their neighbor adjacency set up. What could be the problem? (Choose two) A. The HQ router isn't advertising the route B. There is an OSPF area mismatch C. The HQ router is not enabled for OSPF D. There is a route missing to the destination in the Branch router`s routing table E. Layer 2 connectivity is not established between the two routers https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-connectivity.html Which command would you use to specify a VLAN's ID on a switch? A. vlan 20 B. configure vlan 20 C. name 20 D. vlan sales Wired Ethernet and Wi-Fi are based on which two IEEE standards, respectively? A. 802.1, 802.3 B. 802.1, 802.3 C. 802.3, 802.11 D. 802.11, 802.3 What is one benefit of PVST+? A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops. B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN. D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/pvst.html Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 When comparing controller-based networks and traditional networks what are some perceived benefits from a controller-based perspective? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow the entire network to be instantiated and not just a single device at a time B. The use of automation through APIs that enable data-driven models C. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity Which Cisco IOS command is used to advertise a default route into an OSPF domain regardless of whether a default static route is configured? A. default-information originate B. default-information originate always C. default-information originate permanent D. default-information originate no-check You can use the Cisco IOS ”copy” command to move configurations from one component or device to another. Which of the following commands will upload the current operating configuration and save it to a TFTP server? A. erase startup-config B. copy tftp running-config C. copy running-config tftp D. copy running-config startup-config https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/network-environment-management/managing-devices.html You have configured one side of your EtherChannel as passive. What mode should you use on the other side? A. Desirable B. On C. Auto D. Active In what security zone are the public web servers located? A. DMZ B. Inside C. Outside D. Campus Which of the following components of a network represent personal computers used to send and receive data? A. Endpoints B. Routers C. Interconnections D. Switches https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/the-functions-of-networking.html Refer to the diagram. What method of authentication is being used? A. Open authentication B. CCMP C. WEP D. 802.1x Which of the following is describing the Nonegotiate mode of Dynamic Trunking Protocol? A. Creates a trunk with the neighboring switch based on the DTP request B. Enables trunking on the interface C. Trunking cannot take place on the port regardless of DTP requests D. Sends a DTP communication that it wants to create a trunk with the neighboring switch E. DTP frames are prevented from being generated from the port https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/dynamic-trunking-protocol.html When comparing next-generation IPS to traditional IPS, what additional capabilities can be leveraged to more efficiently block traffic? (Choose three) A. AVC B. Signature-based filtering C. Contextual awareness D. Event impact level Identify the guidelines for duplex configuration. A. The distance and hop count on links between networking devices and critically connected end points should be manually set. B. Half-duplex on both ends performs worse than a duplex mismatch. C. Point-to-point Ethernet links should always run in half-duplex mode. D. Autonegotiation of speed and duplex is recommended on ports connected to noncritical end points. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/physical-connectivity.html Which physical layer media is not susceptible to electromagnetic interference? A. Twisted copper pair B. Wireless C. Coaxial D. Fiber optic __________ means that the QoS tool changes one or more header fields, setting a value in the header. A. Marking B. Classifying C. Insertion D. Qualifying You are currently building a network diagram. You need to add the model number of the local device you are connected to in the diagram. Which command will provide you with the model number of the local Cisco IOS device? A. show cdp neighbors detail B. show cdp C. show interfaces D. show cdp neighbors E. show version F. show ip interface brief What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password, rather than storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other? A. Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted. B. Using hashes is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for encryption. C. Using encryption is preferred because it provides stronger password protection. D. Using encryption is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for hashes. Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in? A. Traffic classification B. Traffic shaping C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic policing You have created VLAN 7 and need to assign FastEthernet 0/3 to it. Which command in interface configuration mode will be used to accomplish this? A. Switchport nonegotiate B. Switchport trunk allowed vlan 7 C. Switchport access vlan 7 D. Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q E. Spanning-tree vlan 7 root primary F. Switchport mode access A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two) A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. D. The switch discards both the first and second frame. An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead? A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN Which port on a Cisco IOS ISR is used for initial management connectivity? A. Ethernet B. USB C. ADSL D. Console E. Aux F. Serial What will the solicited node multicast address be for the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1001:F:2C0:10FF:FE17:FC0F? A. FF02:0000:0000:0000:0000:10FF:FE17:FC0F B. FF02:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001:FF17:FC0F C. 2001:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001:FF17:FC0F D. FF02:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001:FE17:FC0F Which command would you use to ensure that an ACL does not block web-based TCP traffic? A. permit any B. permit tcp any any eq 80 C. permit tcp any eq 80 D. permit any any eq tcp What is the default security violation mode for port security on a Cisco 2960 Catalyst switch? A. Disable B. Shutdown C. Protect D. None E. Restrict F. Err-disable What is the field that is used on modern systems that allows an IP packet to be marked with a specific QoS value? A. EXP B. CoS C. DSCP D. Traffic Class If a lightweight AP provides at least one BSS for wireless clients, which one of the following modes does it use? A. Local B. Normal C. Monitor D. Client A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller? A. A Northbound Interface B. A Southbound Interface C. Data plane functions D. Control plane functions Which aspects can you check to verify that IPv6 is configured correctly? (Choose three) A. Interfaces have the IPv6 address configured B. Correct cable is being used C. IPv6 routing is enabled on the router D. Routing protocols that are configured for IPv6 E. IOS is up to date

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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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