Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Which statements describe the function of ACLs? (Choose two) A. They are used to verify packet source addresses B. Multiple ACLs can be applied per protocol using the ip access-group command C. Outbound ACLs are processed by the ACL prior to being routed to the outbound interface D. Extended ACLs can check destination addresses, protocols, and port numbers https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html What is the interface portion of an IPv6 address that is using EUI-64 if the interface MAC address is 00A1-6789-ABCD? A. 01A1:67FF:FE89:ABCD B. DCBA:98EF:FF76:1A20 C. 02A1:67FF:FE89:ABCD D. 02A1:67FE:FE89:ABCD E. 00A1:67FF:FE89:ABCD What is the Administrative Distance of internal EIGRP routes? B. 170 C. 90 D. 20 E. 1 F. 110 G. 120 Which is the Hello and Dead interval with a Gigabit Ethernet connection for a BROADCAST Network type with IPv6 by default? A. Hello 60, Dead 120 B. Hello 10, Dead 40 C. Hello 40, Dead 10 D. Hello 20, Dead 120 Robust wireless encryption is based on which of the following algorithms? A. WEP B. AES C. DES D. IPsec What is the purpose of the “service password-encryption“ command? A. It encrypts all passwords on your router. B. It encrypts the line console password only. C. It encrypts the vty password only. D. It is not a valid cisco command Which of the following correctly define the NATIVE VLAN? (Choose three) A. It must match on both ends of a trunk link B. It is VLAN 1 by default C. It is only available with 802.1q encapsulation D. It is available with both ISL and 802.1q encapsulation E. It is not associated with any VLAN by default F. It is only available with ISL encapsulation G. It must be configured as VLAN 1 if used What command should you configure globally to enable a 15-minute recovery time for the port security errdisable state? A. errdisable recovery interval 15 B. errdisable recovery timer 15 C. errdisable recovery timer 900 D. errdisable recovery interval 900 Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Lightweight AP C. Wireless controller D. Wireless router Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two) A. Internet B. Internet VPN C. MPLS VPN D. Ethernet VPN E. Intercloud Per the command output, with how many routers is router R9 full adjacent over its Gi0/0 interface? A. 7 B. 10 C. 5 D. 2 Which of the following attributes do QoS tools manage? (Choose three) A. Bandwidth B. Delay C. Load D. MTU E. Loss Which statements correctly define VLANs? (Choose two) A. VLANs can span many different Layer 3 routers B. VLANs can span many different Layer 2 switches C. VLANs divide a single physical collision domain into multiple logical collision domains D. VLANs divide a single physical LAN into multiple logical LANs Which commands are used to statically assign an IPv6 address to a device using a manual interface ID? (Choose two) A. interface Ethernet0/0 B. ipv4 address 2001:DB8:2222:7272::72/64 C. ipv6 address 2001:0DB8:0:1::/64 eui-64 D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:2222:7272::72/64 What does PAT use to keep each translation unique? A. A protocol number B. A combination of a port number and protocol number C. An IP address D. A port number E. A combination of an IP address and a port number F. A combination of an IP address and a protocol number How many IPv4 ACLs can you apply to a router interface? A. Four, two inbound and two outbound B. Two, one inbound and one outbound C. As many as you need, inbound or outbound D. Only one, inbound or outbound What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow When using NAT to translate private IPv4 addresses to public IPv4 addresses, what term is used to identify the private IPv4 address? A. Inside local B. Outside local C. Outside global D. Inside global Which Cisco IOS command is used to advertise a default route into an OSPF domain regardless of whether a default static route is configured? A. default-information originate B. default-information originate always C. default-information originate permanent D. default-information originate no-check Which code represents a route inside an area in which it belongs? A. IS - ISIS Interarea B. OI - OSPF Inter C. DCE - Destination D. O - OSPF Intra You are configuring PAT on your Cisco IOS router. Which command is used to identify the private IP addresses that can be translated? A. access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.63 B. ip nat outside C. ip nat pool NAT_POOL 203.0.113.3 203.0.113.6 prefix-length 29 D. ip nat inside E. ip nat inside source list 1 interface fastethernet0/0 overload Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands What options are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Broad network access B. Resource pooling C. Agile network access D. Proactive service What are the results of subnetting a large Class A network? (Choose two) A. Support fewer networks as compared to the original Class A network B. Support more devices in each network as compared to the original Class A network C. Support more networks as compared to the original Class A network D. Support fewer devices in each network as compared to the original Class A network What is the name of the protocol that is used by IEEE 802.1x devices to communicate with the authenticator and authentication server? A. EAP B. EAPoL C. RADIUS D. TACACS+ Four OSPF routers connect to the same LAN. In a new election after all routers have been rebooted, which router wins the DR election? A. R4, router-id 4.4.4.4, priority 1 B. R3, router-id 3.3.3.3, priority 2 C. R1, router-id 1.1.1.1, priority 4 D. R2, router-id 2.2.2.2, priority 3 A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two) A. Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. B. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. C. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, and will save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config D. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, but will not save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three) A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information. B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains. C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information. D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network. E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port. F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/developing-design-for-layer-2.html Which statements correctly identify the abilities of the user and privileged EXEC modes? (Choose two) A. To return to the user EXEC mode from the privileged EXEC mode, you enter the disable command B. The user EXEC mode enables configuration and debugging commands C. By default, authentication is required to access the user EXEC mode from the console D. The privileged EXEC mode is a prerequisite for other configuration modes https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-4-cisco-ios/command-line-interface.html You need to create a wildcard mask for the entire Class B private IPv4 address space; 172.16.0.0/16 through 172.31.0.0/16. What is the wildcard mask? A. 0.0.15.255 B. 0.15.255.255 C. 0.0.31.255 D. 0.31.255.255 E. 0.0.7.255 F. 0.7.255.255 What command is used to verify ARP cache entries? A. show arp B. arp C. arp timeout D. show arp traffic Which of the following describes an Unspecified IPv6 address? A. ::1 B. Starts with FE80::/10 C. Represented by :: D. Starts with 2000::/3 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html Which of the following subnet masks are classful? (Choose three) A. 255.255.0.0 B. 255.0.0.0 C. 255.255.192.0 D. 255.255.255.240 E. 255.255.255.0 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html What are the considerations when using IPv6 global unicast addresses? (Choose two) A. It starts with 2000::/3 and is assigned by IANA B. Home sites typically require multiple subnets C. Subnetting is more efficient and has less waste than with IPv4 D. A shorter prefix length allows more available address space Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data private while also providing good QoS services? (Choose two) A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN In what security zone are the public web servers located? A. DMZ B. Inside C. Outside D. Campus Why doesn't increasing the number of uplinks solve congestion issues from multiple links aggregating on a switch? A. All traffic must pass through one physical link B. Multiple links require extra overhead C. All uplinks must be running at the same speed D. STP disables ports to prevent loops What will occur when you issue the “copy running-config startup-config“ command on your IOS device? A. The configuration in FLASH will replace the configuration in RAM B. The configuration in NVRAM will replace the configuration in RAM C. The configuration in FLASH will merge with the configuration in RAM D. The configuration in NVRAM will merge with the configuration in RAM E. The configuration in RAM will replace the configuration in NVRAM __________ means that the QoS tool changes one or more header fields, setting a value in the header. A. Marking B. Classifying C. Insertion D. Qualifying If you want to be alerted when a device configuration differs from the intended configuration, what should you implement? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Which command would you use to specify a VLAN's ID on a switch? A. vlan 20 B. configure vlan 20 C. name 20 D. vlan sales Which of the following options are true about IPv6 addresses? (Choose three) A. Contain 8 fields of 4 hexadecimal values each B. Are 32 bits in length C. Are displayed in decimal characters D. Are 128 bits in length E. Are displayed in hexadecimal characters Which feature is required for multiple VLANs to span multiple switches? A. Trunk B. Bridge C. VLAN ID D. Multilayer switch https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html Routing tables can be populated in a number of different ways. Which of the following describes the local host routes route type. A. Router attached to this network B. The router interface has a local IP address C. A system administrator manually enters static routes directly into the configuration D. Learned by exchanging routing information E. Used when no explicit route to a destination is found https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/identification-of-the-path.html Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three) A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does. E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Refer to Exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches? A. one B. two C. six D. twelve Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS Which of the following are available methods of classifying packets in DiffServ on Cisco routers? (Choose three) A. Matching the IP DSCP field B. Matching the 802.1p CoS field C. Matching fields with an extended IP ACL D. Matching the SNMP Location variable What are some of the wireless LAN controller (WLC) capabilities? A. Security management B. Dynamic RF management to assign channels to APs C. RF monitoring to gather information about the channel D. Ease of deployment by programming all RF policies and wireless LAN policies on all APs E. All of these are correct. You are subnetting the 172.16.0.0/16 network so that you have 100 subnets. How many bits do you need to borrow, what is the new subnet mask, and how many hosts will be in each subnet? (Choose three) A. There will be 254 possible hosts in each subnet B. There will be 510 possible hosts in each subnet C. /23 is the new subnet mask D. 7 bits will be borrowed E. 8 bits will be borrowed F. /24 is the new subnet mask Which command is used to set your Cisco IOS device as an authoritative time source that will be used as the trusted time source? A. ntp master B. ntp server C. ntp client D. ntp peer When comparing controller-based networks and traditional networks what are some perceived benefits from a controller-based perspective? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow the entire network to be instantiated and not just a single device at a time B. The use of automation through APIs that enable data-driven models C. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. Which of the following are required attributes of a REST-based API? (Choose two) A. Uses HTTP B. Objects noted as to whether they can be cached C. Classful operation D. Client/server architecture

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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