Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
If a lightweight AP provides at least one BSS for wireless clients, which one of the following modes does it use? A. Local B. Normal C. Monitor D. Client A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller? A. A Northbound Interface B. A Southbound Interface C. Data plane functions D. Control plane functions Connections can be verified using a variety of troubleshooting commands. Which of the following commands is used to discover the routes that packets take when traveling to their destination? A. netstat B. tracert C. ping D. nslookup https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html Which is true in a spine-leaf architecture? (Choose two) A. Each leaf switch must connect to every spine switch. B. Each leaf switch must connect to one spine switch. C. Each spine switch must connect to every leaf switch. D. Each spine switch must connect to one leaf switch. What network mask should be used with Class B network to create 40 subnets? A. 255.255.248.0 B. 255.255.255.0 C. 255.255.252.0 D. 255.255.192.0 E. 255.255.254.0 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password, rather than storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other? A. Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted. B. Using hashes is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for encryption. C. Using encryption is preferred because it provides stronger password protection. D. Using encryption is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for hashes. Which option is not one of the most commonly deployed virtualization vendors and products? A. Oracle XenSpace B. Microsoft Hyper-V C. VMware vCenter D. Red Hat KVM You receive a notification that there is an issue in one of your switched networks. After reviewing the logs you noticed that a switch has rebooted; however, there is no network connectivity to the resources attached to that switch anymore. You connect to the switch over the management network and notice that there is the following message: Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog? [yes/no]: What is the reason for receiving this message? A. This is a normal message that appears each time the device boots and should be disabled B. There is no configuration in FLASH C. There is no start-up configuration in NVRAM D. There is no configuration in RAM What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis In a split-MAC architecture, real-time functions such as encryption are handled in which of the following network entities? A. An access layer switch B. A distribution layer switch C. A wireless LAN controller D. A lightweight AP Identify the statements that describe how ACLs function? (Choose two) A. They use top-down processing B. They always prevent users outside a network from gaining access C. A match results in immediate execution D. The end of the ACL has an implicit allow any https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html Which address type is not supported by IPv6? A. Multicast B. Broadcast C. Anycast D. Unicast In the virtualization world, the ___________ manages and allocates the host hardware for each VM. A. Host controller B. Hyperthreader C. Hypervisor D. Host service Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands Identify the statements that describe the purpose of subnet masks in networking. (Choose three) A. Distinguishes between bits composing the network and subnet parts of an IP address B. Used to classify destination IP addresses as either local or remote C. Required to support session multiplexing with an IP address D. Used to determine router path on layer 3 devices E. A subnet mask identifies the host-significant portion of an IP https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. How does creating an access list differ in IPv6 from IPv4? (Choose two) A. Prefix length can be used B. It is automatically applied to an interface C. Operator ports can be used D. Wildcard masks are not used You are setting up a Cisco IOS router as a DHCP server. Which command is used to identify the IPv4 addresses that will be in the DHCP pool? A. network B. dns-server C. default-router D. ip dhcp excluded-address E. lease F. ip dhcp pool G. domain-name What is the name of the Cisco feature that allows for the identification of protocols that are traditionally hard to classify because of their operation? A. DSCP B. NBAR C. DTerm D. CBWFQ Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Lightweight AP C. Wireless controller D. Wireless router From the following options, what are the required REST API attributes? (Choose two) A. JSON-formatted data B. Unlayered systems C. Layered systems D. Client-server architecture Which switch ”show” command is used to check the software and hardware configuration information of the system? A. show version B. show interfaces C. show running-config https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html What are the functions of switches? (Choose three) A. They work at the data link layer of the OSI Model B. They build and maintain a Medium Access Control, or MAC, address table C. They combine each LAN segment into an extended collision domain D. They provide many full-duplex ports for LAN segmentation E. They forwards, filter, or flood frames based on IP addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/developing-design-for-layer-2.html Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses has binary 0s in all of the host bit positions? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html Which Cisco IOS command is used to install a permanent license on a router? A. copy run star B. write mem C. license boot module D. license save E. license install Which command can be used to help disable multiple ports on a switch at the same time? A. interface range B. default interface C. interface range shutdown D. shutdown range Review the topology. All subnets exist in OSPF area 0. Which command, if issued on R3, would show all the LSAs known by R3? A. Show running-config B. Show ip ospf interface C. Show ip ospf neighbors D. Show ip route ospf E. Show ip ospf database Which statements are true about telnet and ssh? (Choose two) A. Only data traffic is encrypted with ssh B. All telnet traffic is sent in plain text C. All ssh traffic is encrypted D. The data is hashed by telnet during transmission E. The username and password is hashed by telnet during authentication F. Only authentication traffic is encrypted with ssh Which of the following statements are valid for a broadcast domain? (Choose two) A. The network portion of an IP address connecting two devices cannot be reused again within the routing domain B. Devices that connect over the same LAN must share the same IP address network portion C. Devices on the same VLAN - also known as virtual LAN - or wireless network require separate subnets D. Devices separated by a router need to be on the same common subnet https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/challenges-of-shared-lans.html While configuring NAT you want to establish an association between the inside local addresses and the inside global addresses for translation by specifying the ACL and the address pool. What command should you use? A. ip nat inside source static [inside local ip address inside global ip address] B. access-list 1permit [ip address wildcardmask] C. ip nat inside source list [number] pool [pool name] D. ip nat pool [name] [ip address pool range] https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/address-translation.html Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two) A. Internet B. Internet VPN C. MPLS VPN D. Ethernet VPN E. Intercloud Which statements define dynamic NAT when used for private to public translations? A. Dynamic NAT only translates public addresses matching an ACL to private addresses that are defined in a NAT pool B. Dynamic NAT only translates private addresses matching an ACL to public addresses that are defined in a NAT pool C. Dynamic NAT only translates private addresses that are defined in a NAT pool to public addresses matching an ACL D. Dynamic NAT allows multiple private addresses to be translated to the same public address How many subnets are created from a Class C addressing space that is using a /29 subnet mask? A. 16 B. 128 C. 64 D. 32 E. 8 F. 4 What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three) A. transparent B. auto C. on D. desirable E. client F. forwarding https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/trunk-operations.html An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead? A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN Which options are available for obtaining a license file? (Choose two) A. Cisco Registration Manager B. Cisco License Manager C. Cisco Portal D. Cisco PAK E. Cisco License Registration Portal F. Cisco Manager Which command is used to ensure that R2 advertises 203.0.113.0/29 to R1 instead of 203.0.113.0/24 to R1? A. network B. maximum-paths C. version 2 D. auto-summary E. no auto-summary Which layer of the OSI model defines how data is formatted for transmission? A. Session B. Network C. Transport D. Application E. Data-link F. Presentation https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html What versions of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) were defined after the IEEE ratified the IEEE 802.11i security standard? (Choose two) A. WPA B. WPA2 C. WPA3 D. WPA0 Which protocol provides encryption only? A. TLS VPN B. GRE VPN C. Connect VPN D. IPsec VPN Which of the following commands displays the process ID, router ID, reference bandwidth, and areas that are configured? A. show ipv6 ospf neighbor B. show ipv6 ospf C. show ipv6 route ospf D. show ipv6 ospf interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/ospfv3-configuration.html Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification What can be verified in the output of show interfaces trunk? (Choose five) A. The VLANs allowed on the trunk B. The encapsulation method used for the trunk C. The access vlan the port is a member of if it is not a trunk D. The interfaces are trunks E. The Native VLAN for the trunk F. The administrative mode used to form the trunk G. If DTP is enabled or disabled Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model? A. Cisco Open SDN Controller B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) D. None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane. Which options are not one of the manageable QoS characteristics of network traffic? (Choose two) A. Delay B. Jitter C. Queue size D. Clock rate E. Bandwidth F. Loss The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of Secure-shutdown. Which of the following answer must be true about this interface at this time? A. The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. B. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. C. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. D. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10. Why must you subtract two addresses when determining the number of usable addresses within a subnet? (Choose two) A. The last address is the directed broadcast address, which can be used to communicate with all devices in the LAN from another LAN B. The first address is the directed broadcast address, which can be used to communicate with all devices in the LAN from another LAN C. The first address is the subnet ID; and routers use it to make forwarding decisions D. The last address is the subnet ID; and routers use it to make forwarding decisions You want to verify the Cisco IOS software version, ROM version, amount of memory, type of processor, number and types of interfaces, as well as the configuration register value on your 2900 series IOS router. What command will allow you to accomplish this? A. Show startup-configuration B. Show running-configuration C. Show version D. Show flash Using the exhibit as a reference, what is a valid key? A. ”lastUpdateTime”: 1572317520439 B. ”CSR1000V” C. ”role” D. ”platformId”: Per the command output, with how many routers is router R9 full adjacent over its Gi0/0 interface? A. 7 B. 10 C. 5 D. 2 You are configuring PAT on your Cisco IOS router? Which keyword in the “ip nat inside source“ command is used to enable PAT? A. Interface B. Overload C. List D. PAT E. Pool When comparing next-generation IPS to traditional IPS, what additional capabilities can be leveraged to more efficiently block traffic? (Choose three) A. AVC B. Signature-based filtering C. Contextual awareness D. Event impact level A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen? A. session B. transport C. network D. data link E. physical https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-1-internetworking/data-encapsulation.html Connections can be verified using a variety of troubleshooting commands. Which of the following commands is used to display incoming and outgoing connections? A. netstat B. tracert C. ping D. nslookup https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode.

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources

These are the best CCNA training resources online:

Click Here to get the Cisco CCNA Gold Bootcamp, the most comprehensive and highest rated CCNA course online with a 4.8 star rating from over 30,000 public reviews. I recommend this as your primary study source to learn all the topics on the exam.

Want to take your practice tests to the next level? AlphaPrep’s purpose-built Cisco test engine has the largest question bank, adaptive questions, and advanced reporting which tells you exactly when you’re ready to pass the real exam. Click here for your free trial.

The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

The Cisco CCNA 200-301 practice exam tests include questions to test your knowledge and skills related to Cisco networking fundamentals, which helps you pass the actual exam.

The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Complete this form to get your score report

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources