Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Think about a policing function that is currently working, and also think about a shaping function that is also currently working. That is, the current bit rate of traffic exceeds the respective policing and shaping rates. Which statements are true about these features? (Choose two) A. The policer may or may not be discarding packets. B. The policer is definitely discarding packets. C. The shaper may or may not be queuing packets to slow down the sending rate. D. The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate. Which command is used to set an inactivity timer for the vty lines on your Cisco IOS switch? A. transport input telnet B. service password-encryption C. no login D. enable secret E. privileged F. no exec G. exec-timeout Which technology do we use to turn the public Internet into a private secure environment? A. Core Access B. Intranet C. Distribution Access D. VPN Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands Identify the guidelines to follow when configuring ACLs. (Choose three) A. If applied correctly, an ACL can filter traffic going through the router B. Place a Standard ACL close to the destination C. The last ACL test is always an implicit deny everything else statement D. Multiple ACLs can be applied to an interface direction E. The most general statement should be at the top of an ACL https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html What commands would you need to configure to enable DHCP Snooping so that PC4 couldn’t become a rogue DHCP server? A. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/12, ip dhcp snooping trust B. Configure the following on SW 1: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust C. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust D. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust E. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/12, ip dhcp snooping trust F. Configure the following on SW 1: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust Which layer in the hierarchical Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture is used to provide end users with connectivity to the network? A. Aggregation B. Edge C. Distribution D. Access E. Core Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco voice network? (Choose two) A. Jitter < 30 ms B. Loss < 1% C. One-way delay < 200 ms D. Jitter < 50 ms E. Loss < 2% F. Round-trip delay < 200 ms Which command is used to create a standard numbered IPv4 ACL? A. access-list numbered B. ip access-list C. numbered access-list D. access-list ip E. access-list Wired Ethernet and Wi-Fi are based on which two IEEE standards, respectively? A. 802.1, 802.3 B. 802.1, 802.3 C. 802.3, 802.11 D. 802.11, 802.3 R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. A large number of CRC errors may indicate the presence of electromagnetic interference. What command is used to troubleshoot CRC errors? A. show controller B. show shutdown C. show interface D. show counters E. show memory https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/troubleshooting-switch-issues.html In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN Refer to the diagram. What is the official name of the network (Network A) that is broadcast by an AP? A. SSID B. BSS C. ESS D. SRDID Which command is used to apply an ACL to an interface? A. access-group B. ip access-group C. ip access-list D. ip access-class E. access-class F. access-list What are potential causes of OSPF neighbor issues? (Choose two) A. One of the interfaces is not in the same OSPF area as the other interface B. The interface and line protocol are both showing as "up" C. The interfaces are in the same subnet D. One of the interfaces is not enabled for OSPF https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/troubleshooting-multiarea-ospf.html Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model? A. Cisco Open SDN Controller B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) D. None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane. Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B Which statement correctly defines an anycast IPv6 address? A. Used in one-to-all communication B. Used in one-to-one communication C. Used in one-to-a-group communication D. Used in one-to-nearest communication You need to determine the VLAN ID that will be placed in a frame as it exits your Cisco IOS ISR interface of GigabitEthernet 0/0.20. Which command will you use? A. Show ip route B. Show mac-address table dynamic C. Show interface gigabitethernet 0/0.20 D. Show ip arp E. Show interfaces trunk F. Show vlans G. Show interface gigabitethernet 0/0.20 switchport Which cloud service is specific to one company that owns both the tools/infrastructure that creates the cloud and the people that use the services? A. Hybrid cloud B. Public cloud C. Private cloud D. Internal cloud Within a deny statement for an IPv6 ACL, what are the possible values for the prefix? (Choose two) A. Source or destination IPv6 host address B. Wildcard for the source C. Any prefix as an abbreviation for the IPv6 prefix ::/0 D. Name or number of an Internet protocol What will the solicited node multicast address be for the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1001:F:2C0:10FF:FE17:FC0F? A. FF02:0000:0000:0000:0000:10FF:FE17:FC0F B. FF02:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001:FF17:FC0F C. 2001:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001:FF17:FC0F D. FF02:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001:FE17:FC0F Which of the following commands displays the OSPFv3 neighbors, the neighbor router ID, and the interface it is available through? A. show ipv6 ospf neighbor B. show ipv6 ospf C. show ipv6 route ospf D. show ipv6 ospf interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/ospfv3-configuration.html Which problems can manifest in a redundant switched topology? (Choose three) A. Media Access Control, or MAC, database instability B. Virtual LAN, or VLAN, mismatch errors C. Broadcast storms D. Multiple frame transmission E. Trunk ports failing establishment https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/redundant-topologies.html Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP enable secret [password] is hashed using the _______ algorithm. A. MD5 B. AH C. PSK D. ESP E. WPA2 Which cloud service model gives a customer complete control over the virtual hardware components, including processor performance, network connectivity, how much memory and storage space is required, and potentially the operating system that is preinstalled? A. SaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. TaaS Refer to the exhibit. What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two) A. The number of collision domains would remain the same. B. The number of collision domains would decrease. C. The number of collision domains would increase. D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same. E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease. F. The number of broadcast domains would increase. Which of the following describes a multicast type of network communication? A. From one address to a single address B. From one address to all other addresses C. From one address to multiple addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/ethernet-protocol.html Which command is used to display the open ports on a router so that you can determine which services should be disabled? A. show ports open host B. show control-plane host open-ports C. show flash D. show file system Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses is used in DHCP assignment process before a host has a valid IP address? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 Identify the features of UDP. (Choose two) A. Connection oriented B. Best effort C. Supports applications such as Secure Shell, or SSH, FTP, and DNS D. Data recovery E. Limited error checking https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/tcpip-transport-layer.html Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes? A. 10.0.0.0 /21 B. 10.0.0.0 /22 C. 10.0.0.0 /23 D. 10.0.0.0 /24 Consider the following scenario: Host A has IP address 192.168.6.3 and MAC address 0800:0111:3333. Host B has IP address 192.168.7.3 and MAC address 0800:0222:4444. The router has IP address 192.168.7.1 and MAC address 0800:0444:1111. When Host B receives a packet from Host A, the frame contains the source and destination IP and MAC addresses. What should be the source MAC address? A. 0800:0444:1111 B. 192.168.7.3 C. 192.168.6.3 D. 0800:0222:4444 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two) A. reduces routing table entries B. auto-negotiation of media rates C. efficient utilization of MAC addresses D. dedicated communications between devices E. ease of management and troubleshooting https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html If you want to be alerted when a device configuration differs from the intended configuration, what should you implement? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Which of the following four TCP/IP layers supports network APIs that allow programs created for a particular operating system to access the network? A. Network Access B. Transport C. Internet D. Application https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html Which of the following best describes a virtual network function in a public cloud service? A. A subset of a physical networking device, configured by the cloud provider and allocated for use by that customer only B. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer, but with no direct customer access to the server that provides the service C. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer D. Any networking feature implemented on a VM in a cloud service Which configuration mode would you use to configure a particular port on a switch? A. Controller configuration mode B. User EXEC mode C. Global configuration mode D. Interface configuration mode https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. Robust wireless encryption is based on which of the following algorithms? A. WEP B. AES C. DES D. IPsec A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two) A. Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. B. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. C. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, and will save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config D. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, but will not save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config When a wildcard mask is presented in binary, what do the zeros (0) indicate? A. The network portion of the wildcard mask B. The host portion of the wildcard mask C. Ignore the corresponding bit in the IP address D. Match the corresponding bit in the IP address E. Match the corresponding bit in the subnet mask Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two) A. Internet B. Internet VPN C. MPLS VPN D. Ethernet VPN E. Intercloud What does the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) do? (Choose two) A. Routes traffic to a single gateway distributed across routers B. Provides automatic rerouting in the event of any failure C. Provides full use of resources on all devices by requiring the creation of multiple groups D. Provides multiple virtual IP addresses and virtual MAC https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/etherchannel-and-l3-redundancy/glbp-overview.html What is the calculator of the total cost of a particular path referred to? A. Checksum B. Metric C. Bandwidth D. Length Which statements describe how to configure and verify basic NTP protocol? (Choose two) A. To configure an NTP master clock, execute commands in the global configuration mode B. Commands should be executed in the user EXEC mode when displaying the status of NTP C. When verifying the status of NTP associations, commands should be executed in the user EXEC mode D. Configuring a higher stratum value indicates a higher priority https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/starting-a-router.html What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification You are configuring HSRP for VLAN 10. You want its primary default gateway to be R1 and secondary default gateway be R2. What should you consider when configuring HSRP for R1? (Choose two) A. Ensure that you use the same group number for all your configuration commands B. Ensure that pre-emption is disabled C. To ensure R1 always has priority, use the IP address of the physical interface of R1 for the virtual IP address D. Ensure that you specify R2 has a lower priority than R1 Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Which ICMP for IPv6 message types are informational messages? (Choose two) A. Packet too big B. Time exceeded C. Echo request D. Echo reply E. Destination unreachable https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/ipv6-header-and-icmp.html

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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