Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
What are the considerations when using First Hop Redundancy Protocols? (Choose two) A. They must exist in their own VLAN B. They allow you to implement multiple physical routers in your environment, but have them appear as a single virtual router to your end stations C. They require additional configuration for the end user D. The transition from one forwarding router to another is transparent to the end devices In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN Robust wireless encryption is based on which of the following algorithms? A. WEP B. AES C. DES D. IPsec How is Telnet used to verify connectivity? (Choose two) A. It shows you the path required to reach the end device B. To determine if you have access to a particular service on a device C. It uses ICMP Echo requests to test connectivity D. To verify basic connectivity to a device Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password, rather than storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other? A. Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted. B. Using hashes is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for encryption. C. Using encryption is preferred because it provides stronger password protection. D. Using encryption is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for hashes. Which of the following best describes a virtual network function in a public cloud service? A. A subset of a physical networking device, configured by the cloud provider and allocated for use by that customer only B. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer, but with no direct customer access to the server that provides the service C. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer D. Any networking feature implemented on a VM in a cloud service Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. This design will function as intended. B. Spanning-tree will need to be used. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. D. The connection between switches should be a trunk. E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol. Which of the following parameters are necessary when creating a new WLAN with the controller GUI? (Choose two) A. SSID B. VLAN number C. Interface D. BSSID E. IP subnet Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. Which statements describe the function of ACLs? (Choose two) A. They are used to verify packet source addresses B. Multiple ACLs can be applied per protocol using the ip access-group command C. Outbound ACLs are processed by the ACL prior to being routed to the outbound interface D. Extended ACLs can check destination addresses, protocols, and port numbers https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html When using NAT to translate private IPv4 addresses to public IPv4 addresses, what term is used to identify the private IPv4 address? A. Inside local B. Outside local C. Outside global D. Inside global Which features are used to extend the lifetime and usefulness of IPv4 networks? (Choose four) A. Private Addressing B. VLSM C. CIDR D. VLANs E. Public Addressing F. NAT G. IPv6 Why must you subtract two addresses when determining the number of usable addresses within a subnet? (Choose two) A. The last address is the directed broadcast address, which can be used to communicate with all devices in the LAN from another LAN B. The first address is the directed broadcast address, which can be used to communicate with all devices in the LAN from another LAN C. The first address is the subnet ID; and routers use it to make forwarding decisions D. The last address is the subnet ID; and routers use it to make forwarding decisions Which of the following describes the Rapid PVST+ protocol? A. Assumes one 802.1D spanning tree for the entire bridged network B. Provides a separate 802.1D spanning tree for each virtual LAN, or VLAN, configured C. Provides fast conversion with a single instance of STP D. Provides fast conversion with an instance of spanning tree per VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two host systems? A. Session B. Network C. Transport D. Application E. Data-link F. Presentation https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html Which of the following behaviors are applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch? (Choose two) A. Shaping B. Policing C. Priority scheduling D. Round-robin scheduling Which hash method is used by default when using the enable secret Cisco IOS command? A. 3DES B. MD5 C. SHA-0 D. HMAC What options are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Broad network access B. Resource pooling C. Agile network access D. Proactive service What will occur when you issue the “copy startup-config running-config“ command on your IOS device? A. The configuration in RAM will replace the configuration in NVRAM B. The configuration in NVRAM will merge with the configuration in RAM C. The configuration in FLASH will merge with the configuration in RAM D. The configuration in FLASH will replace the configuration in RAM E. The configuration in NVRAM will replace the configuration in RAM You need to apply an access-list to the vty lines on your router so that you can control which users can make telnet and ssh connections to the device. Which command in line vty configuration mode will apply the access-list to the vty lines? A. ip access-group access-list-number out B. access-class access-list-number out C. access-class access-list-number in D. ip access-group access-list-number in E. access-list access-list-number in F. ip access-list access-list-number in G. access-list access-list-number out How can be provided secure access to a privileged EXEC mode? A. Limit access to virtual type terminal, or vty, lines B. Assign a password and privilege level C. Block Telnet access https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/cisco-router-security.html Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of Secure-shutdown. Which of the following answer must be true about this interface at this time? A. The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. B. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. C. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. D. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10. Which of the following commands will display the general status of the EtherChannel interface? A. show etherchannel summary B. show interface port-channel C. show etherchannel port-channel https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/etherchannel-and-l3-redundancy/configuring-etherchannel.html While configuring a switch, you noticed a configuration issue with an EtherChannel bundle. You thought you corrected the issue, but the change didn't take effect on the EtherChannel bundle. What is the mostly likely cause of this problem? A. The changes haven't propagated to the other interfaces B. You made the change on the interface directly and not the EtherChannel bundle C. You were in the wrong mode when you made the change D. You need to make the change on all interfaces that are part of the bundle Which of the following are available methods of classifying packets in DiffServ on Cisco routers? (Choose three) A. Matching the IP DSCP field B. Matching the 802.1p CoS field C. Matching fields with an extended IP ACL D. Matching the SNMP Location variable When planning a greenfield SDA design, what traditional LAN design points should be included? (Choose two) A. The number of switchports needed in each switch B. The required speed of the switchports C. A security firewall to properly segment traffic D. The Spanning Tree mode of operation to use In a network that uses OSPF, you need to configure a default route to 203.0.113.1 on one router that will then be advertised to the other routers. What command should be used first? A. ip route 203.0.113.1 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 C. default ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 D. ip route 203.0.113.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 When the Cisco IOS image is located during boot, where is it loaded? A. ROM B. RAM C. TFTP D. NVRAM E. FLASH Think about a policing function that is currently working, and also think about a shaping function that is also currently working. That is, the current bit rate of traffic exceeds the respective policing and shaping rates. Which statements are true about these features? (Choose two) A. The policer may or may not be discarding packets. B. The policer is definitely discarding packets. C. The shaper may or may not be queuing packets to slow down the sending rate. D. The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate. Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in? A. Traffic classification B. Traffic shaping C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic policing What are the valid encapsulation methods when forcing a device to become a trunk port? (Choose three) A. private-vlan B. dot1q-tunnel C. dot1q D. negotiate E. isl In a split-MAC architecture, real-time functions such as encryption are handled in which of the following network entities? A. An access layer switch B. A distribution layer switch C. A wireless LAN controller D. A lightweight AP Which option is not one of the most commonly deployed virtualization vendors and products? A. Oracle XenSpace B. Microsoft Hyper-V C. VMware vCenter D. Red Hat KVM When comparing controller-based networks and traditional networks what are some perceived benefits from a controller-based perspective? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow the entire network to be instantiated and not just a single device at a time B. The use of automation through APIs that enable data-driven models C. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity By default, what is the status of a Cisco IOS ISR interface? A. administratively down, down B. down, down C. up, up D. up, down How do EUI-64 interface ID assignments work? (Choose two) A. 16-bit 0xFFFE is inserted at the 24th bit of the MAC address to create a unique interface identifier. B. In the first bit of the Organizational Unique ID, or OUI, bit 8 indicates the scope: 1 for global and 2 for local C. The EUI-64 standard stretches MAC addresses from 48 to 56 bits D. Most burned-in addresses are globally scoped; therefore bit 7 will usually be 0 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address? A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing. B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch. C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame. D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table. E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-3-lan-switching-spanning-tree-protocol/switching-process.html Which of the following describes a dynamic NAT configuration? A. Manually configured, one-to-one address mapping B. Automatically assigned from an address pool, many-to-many address mapping C. Many-to-one address mapping https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/address-translation.html Which of the following four TCP/IP layers represents the core of the TCP/IP architecture? A. Network Access B. Transport C. Internet D. Application https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html When comparing next-generation IPS to traditional IPS, what additional capabilities can be leveraged to more efficiently block traffic? (Choose three) A. AVC B. Signature-based filtering C. Contextual awareness D. Event impact level What are the functions of the active router when there is L3 redundancy? (Choose four) A. Sends out hello messages B. Knows the IP address of the virtual router C. Active forwarding of packets for the virtual router is assumed D. Default gateway ARP requests are responded to with the virtual router MAC E. Listens for periodic hello messages F. If the other router is not heard from, it assumes active forwarding of packets https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/etherchannel-and-l3-redundancy/gateway-redundancy.html Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? A. learning B. listening C. discarding D. forwarding https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html You have a network address of 172.16.0.0/22, which equals a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. Determine the block size of this subnet. A. 6 B. 8 C. 2 D. 16 E. 4 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html You are configuring HSRP for VLAN 10. You want its primary default gateway to be R1 and secondary default gateway be R2. What should you consider when configuring HSRP for R1? (Choose two) A. Ensure that you use the same group number for all your configuration commands B. Ensure that pre-emption is disabled C. To ensure R1 always has priority, use the IP address of the physical interface of R1 for the virtual IP address D. Ensure that you specify R2 has a lower priority than R1 Review the topology. All subnets exist in OSPF area 0. Which command, if issued on R3, would show all the LSAs known by R3? A. Show running-config B. Show ip ospf interface C. Show ip ospf neighbors D. Show ip route ospf E. Show ip ospf database An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. Within a deny statement for an IPv6 ACL, what are the possible values for the prefix? (Choose two) A. Source or destination IPv6 host address B. Wildcard for the source C. Any prefix as an abbreviation for the IPv6 prefix ::/0 D. Name or number of an Internet protocol enable secret [password] is hashed using the _______ algorithm. A. MD5 B. AH C. PSK D. ESP E. WPA2 What are some perceived benefits of controller-based networks as compared to traditional networks? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind B. The use of APIs to mass-configure network devices, allowing for more consistency and fewer errors C. The use of DevOps approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity Which of the following protocols are used to auto negotiate trunk formation between two switches? A. CDP B. VTP C. DTP D. STP Identify the purpose and functions of VLANs. (Choose three) A. Flexibility in grouping users together logically B. Access port security C. Protocol and port number provisioning D. Segmentation of network users E. Inbound or outbound interface VLAN configuration https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP What is the benefit of using named IPv4 ACLs over numbered IPv4 ACLs? A. You can permit or deny traffic B. You can create extended ACLs C. There is an implicit deny all entry in every ACL D. You can add, delete, and modify entries in a named ACL E. They have sequence numbers

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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