Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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What are the considerations when using IPv6 global unicast addresses? (Choose two) A. It starts with 2000::/3 and is assigned by IANA B. Home sites typically require multiple subnets C. Subnetting is more efficient and has less waste than with IPv4 D. A shorter prefix length allows more available address space What is the definition of an autonomous system? A. OSPF and RIP working together B. EGP running C. Networks under a single technical administration D. Interior gateway connection Which is true in a spine-leaf architecture? (Choose two) A. Each leaf switch must connect to every spine switch. B. Each leaf switch must connect to one spine switch. C. Each spine switch must connect to every leaf switch. D. Each spine switch must connect to one leaf switch. Each virtual OS instance that exists on a server is referred to as a ___________ A. KVM B. VM C. CSR D. hypervisor R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. Which state of the default STP configuration allows ports to listen for BPDUs but not send any? A. Listening B. Learning C. Blocking D. Forwarding Which of the following describes dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two) A. They are configured on Layer 2 switches B. They can choose an alternate path to a learned network when the current path no longer exists C. They are best used in small networks D. They are statically configured with remote networks E. They can choose the best path to a learned network when multiple paths exist Suppose two APs are located near each other. Which channel use strategy will result in nonoverlapping channels for Wi-Fi use? (Choose two) A. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and channel 2 on AP-B. B. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and 5-GHz channel 48 on AP-B. C. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 40 on AP-B. D. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 37 on AP-B. What is the scope of an IPv6 multicast address that starts with FF02? A. Link-local B. Global C. Site local D. Node E. Organization Which command would you use to ensure that an ACL does not block web-based TCP traffic? A. permit any B. permit tcp any any eq 80 C. permit tcp any eq 80 D. permit any any eq tcp Consider the following scenario: Host A has IP address 192.168.6.3 and MAC address 0800:0111:3333. Host B has IP address 192.168.7.3 and MAC address 0800:0222:4444. The router has IP address 192.168.7.1 and MAC address 0800:0444:1111. When Host B receives a packet from Host A, the frame contains the source and destination IP and MAC addresses. What should be the source MAC address? A. 0800:0444:1111 B. 192.168.7.3 C. 192.168.6.3 D. 0800:0222:4444 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html You are configuring dynamic NAT on a Cisco IOS router. What is used to define the public IPv4 address that will be used for translations? A. An extended access list B. A DHCP pool C. The inside interface D. A NAT pool E. A standard access list F. The outside interface Per the command output, with how many routers is router R9 full adjacent over its Gi0/0 interface? A. 7 B. 10 C. 5 D. 2 What is the maximum stratum level for NTP? A. 15 B. 10 C. 255 D. 20 F. 100 G. 5 In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN What are the VLAN design considerations? (Choose four) A. Both ends of an 802.1Q trunk link require matching native VLANs B. The native VLAN should be changed from VLAN 1 C. The maximum number of VLANs is 1001 D. DTP manages trunk negotiations between Cisco switches E. VLAN 0 is the factory default Ethernet VLAN F. The Cisco switch IP address should be in the management VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html With IEEE 802.1x, which role does a LAN switch typically play? A. Authentication server B. Supplicant C. Translator D. Authenticator What are some perceived benefits of controller-based networks as compared to traditional networks? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind B. The use of APIs to mass-configure network devices, allowing for more consistency and fewer errors C. The use of DevOps approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 Which of the commands will successfully create a named ACL called WEB_ACCESS that you can add permit and deny entries to for controlling access to web resources? A. access-list standard WEB_ACCESS B. ip access-list extended WEB_ACCESS C. ip access-list standard WEB_ACCESS D. access-list extended WEB_ACCESS Which of the following is the static default route for IPv6? A. 0/:: B. FF::/1 C. ::/1 D. ::/0 Which statements correctly describe a standard IPv4 ACL? (Choose two) A. Uses protocols and port numbers for matching B. Uses source and destination IP address for matching C. Permits or denies the entire protocol suite D. Only uses the source IP address for matching E. Can only be created as numbered ACLs You have just configured the following banner on your Cisco IOS router. Router(config)#banner login #This is a secured environment. If you are not authorized to be here, log out immediately.# When will this banner be displayed? A. When the router first boots B. When users are prompted for authentication credentials C. Every 5 minutes by default D. Immediately when any user connects to the device E. Every 10 minutes by default Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Which component is used to hold the critical electronic components of a router? A. Motherboard B. Memory C. Interface D. PSU E. CPU Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device (referenced with the arrow) that communicates with wireless clients? A. Wireless controller B. Access point C. Router D. Wireless bridge What can VLANs be used for? (Choose two) A. To maximize device resources B. To segment a physical switch into logical broadcast domains C. To prevent specific protocols from entering your network D. To eliminate the need for routers Which hash method is used by default when using the enable secret Cisco IOS command? A. 3DES B. MD5 C. SHA-0 D. HMAC You need to configure a banner on your IOS Switch indicating that maintenance will be performed on Saturday night. Which banner is the best to implement in this case? A. login B. EXEC C. motd D. incoming A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two) A. Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. B. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. C. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, and will save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config D. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, but will not save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config What options are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Broad network access B. Resource pooling C. Agile network access D. Proactive service Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password, rather than storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other? A. Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted. B. Using hashes is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for encryption. C. Using encryption is preferred because it provides stronger password protection. D. Using encryption is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for hashes. What would the following access list entry accomplish when configuring your router? permit tcp host 192.0.0.130 host 192.0.0.227 eq 80 (Choose two) A. Without any other statements, all other hosts would be denied access to 192.0.0.277 B. It permits traffic from 192.0.0.130 to access 192.0.0.277 using anything but HTTP C. It permits traffic from 192.0.0.130 to access 192.0.0.277 using FTP D. It permits traffic from 192.0.0.130 to access 192.0.0.277 using HTTP What is the purpose of domain name system (DNS)? A. To map private IPv4 addresses to public IPv4 addresses B. To map MAC addresses to hostnames C. To map IPv4 addresses to hostnames D. To map IPv4 address to NetBIOS names E. To map IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses When comparing controller-based networks and traditional networks what are some perceived benefits from a controller-based perspective? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow the entire network to be instantiated and not just a single device at a time B. The use of automation through APIs that enable data-driven models C. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two) A. Network A - 172.16.3.48/26 B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25 C. Network A - 172.16.3.192/26 D. Link A - 172.16.3.0/30 E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30 F. Link A - 172.16.3.112/30 Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses? A. 255.255.255.0 B. 255.255.254.0 C. 255.255.252.0 D. 255.255.248.0 The configuration register on your Cisco IOS 2900 series router is set to 0x2101. How will the router choose the IOS image during the boot process? A. The last image located in flash will be booted B. The first image located in flash will be booted C. The image listed in the boot system command will be booted D. The image located on a TFTP server will be booted By default, no password is required to connect to the console port. Which commands are required to enable local line authentication for the console port? (Choose two) A. enable B. exec-timeout C. privilege D. login E. secret F. password Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two) A. Internet B. Internet VPN C. MPLS VPN D. Ethernet VPN E. Intercloud Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco voice network? (Choose two) A. Jitter < 30 ms B. Loss < 1% C. One-way delay < 200 ms D. Jitter < 50 ms E. Loss < 2% F. Round-trip delay < 200 ms Identify the characteristics of layer 3 addressing. (Choose two) A. The TCP/IP protocol stack uses IP B. Ethernet uses Media Access Control, or MAC, addresses C. Layer 3 addresses are assigned to network devices and hosts that provide layer 3 functions D. Network devices are used to maintain the routing table E. Unique Media Access Control, or MAC, addresses are assigned to each PC and each router interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/tcpip-internet-layer.html When the Cisco IOS image is located during boot, where is it loaded? A. ROM B. RAM C. TFTP D. NVRAM E. FLASH You can use output filters in combination with any show command. Which of the following leaves out all output lines that match the filtering expression? A. include B. exclude C. begin D. section https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/starting-a-router.html Which command could you enter to encrypt passwords? A. enable secret B. username {username} secret {password} C. service password-encryption D. All of the above E. None of the above Imagine you configured OSPFv2 in a small lab network. Which of the following answers list a condition that could keep the routers in your lab from learning all the routes to all the IPv4 routes in your small lab network? (Choose two) A. An ACL could be blocking router advertisements. B. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF area and with the same IPv4 subnet mask. C. Any physical layer problem that would prevent two neighboring routers from being able to ping each others IPv4 addresses in the subnet that exists between the two routers. D. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF process ID on the router ospf command. Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP What is the field that is used on modern systems that allows an IP packet to be marked with a specific QoS value? A. EXP B. CoS C. DSCP D. Traffic Class Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three) A. transparent B. auto C. on D. desirable E. client F. forwarding https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/trunk-operations.html Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification What are the considerations when determining the best administrative distance of route sources? (Choose two) A. Routers choose the routing source with the lowest administrative distance B. Multiple routing protocols and static routes cannot be used at the same time C. Multiple routing protocols and static routes can be used at the same time D. Routers choose the routing source with the highest administrative distance Which of the following statements describe a distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two) A. Each router builds its own internal map of the network topology B. Update messages are propagated to all routers running the same routing protocol C. Periodic update messages are sent whether there is a change in the network or not D. Only concerned with how far and in what direction the destination is https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/dynamic-routing.html When electing a root port for a nonroot switch, which values are used to break ties if required? (Choose two) A. Upstream BID B. MAC address C. Port ID D. Priority What is the purpose of the “service password-encryption“ command? A. It encrypts all passwords on your router. B. It encrypts the line console password only. C. It encrypts the vty password only. D. It is not a valid cisco command

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

The Cisco CCNA 200-301 practice exam tests include questions to test your knowledge and skills related to Cisco networking fundamentals, which helps you pass the actual exam.

The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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