Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
What is the Administrative Distance of internal EIGRP routes? B. 170 C. 90 D. 20 E. 1 F. 110 G. 120 Which of the following layer 2 WAN protocols is the most scalable transport technology ever developed? A. HDLC B. Ethernet C. Frame Relay D. ATM E. PPP https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/wan-technologies/serial-encapsulation.html What is the result of issuing the command “no service password-encryption“ on a Cisco IOS router? A. All future passwords will be stored as plain text in the running configuration B. All current encrypted passwords and future passwords will be encrypted in the running configuration C. All current encrypted passwords and future passwords will be stored as plain text in the running configuration D. All future passwords will be encrypted in the running configuration Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password, rather than storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other? A. Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted. B. Using hashes is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for encryption. C. Using encryption is preferred because it provides stronger password protection. D. Using encryption is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for hashes. Which layer of the OSI model ensures data traffic reliability and the breaking down of large files into smaller segments? A. Session B. Network C. Transport D. Application E. Data-link F. Presentation https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html Four OSPF routers connect to the same LAN. In a new election after all routers have been rebooted, which router wins the DR election? A. R4, router-id 4.4.4.4, priority 1 B. R3, router-id 3.3.3.3, priority 2 C. R1, router-id 1.1.1.1, priority 4 D. R2, router-id 2.2.2.2, priority 3 What commands would you need to configure to enable DHCP Snooping so that PC4 couldn’t become a rogue DHCP server? A. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/12, ip dhcp snooping trust B. Configure the following on SW 1: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust C. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust D. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust E. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/12, ip dhcp snooping trust F. Configure the following on SW 1: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust Which of the following options are provided by private VPNs? (Choose two) A. Security B. Cost C. No control of resources D. Enterprise Access is less secure You need to prevent your router from receiving and processing RIPv2 routing updates. How can you accomplish this? A. Create an ACL denying TCP port 520 packets and apply it outbound on the interface B. Create an ACL denying UDP port 520 packets and apply it inbound on the interface C. Create an ACL denying TCP port 520 packets and apply it inbound on the interface D. Create an ACL denying UDP port 520 packets and apply it outbound on the interface E. Enable the passive interface feature on the interface Which command is used to determine the licenses that are activated on your ISR? A. show license B. show running-config license C. show version D. show running-config E. show platform F. show udi license Which Cisco IOS command is used to advertise a default route into an OSPF domain regardless of whether a default static route is configured? A. default-information originate B. default-information originate always C. default-information originate permanent D. default-information originate no-check Which OSPF verification commands describe the operations they perform? (Choose two) A. The [show ip protocols] command displays the neighbor priorities along with interface dead timers. B. The [show ip route ospf] command is used to verify the OSPF status as well as which routing protocols are configured on a router. C. The [show ip ospf interface] command displays OSPF-related information on OSPF-enabled interfaces. D. The [show ip ospf neighbor] command displays the neighbor router ID, OSPF state, neighbor interface IP address and interface through which the neighbor is accessible. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/troubleshooting-multiarea-ospf.html Identify the true statements about layer 2 addressing. (Choose two) A. It is used to identify Ethernet router interfaces on the LAN B. Each PC and each router interface has its own unique Medium Access Control, or MAC, address C. Identifiers that enable intermediary network devices to locate hosts on different networks are included D. Ethernet uses IP addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/ethernet-protocol.html What can VLANs be used for? (Choose two) A. To maximize device resources B. To segment a physical switch into logical broadcast domains C. To prevent specific protocols from entering your network D. To eliminate the need for routers Which of the following attributes do QoS tools manage? (Choose three) A. Bandwidth B. Delay C. Load D. MTU E. Loss Wired Ethernet and Wi-Fi are based on which two IEEE standards, respectively? A. 802.1, 802.3 B. 802.1, 802.3 C. 802.3, 802.11 D. 802.11, 802.3 A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two) A. Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. B. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. C. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, and will save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config D. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, but will not save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config You are checking boot information in the register using the show version command. The configuration register is showing 0x2103. You want to return it to the default value. What command will you use? A. config-register 0x2101 B. config-terminal 0x2201 C. config-register 0x2210 D. config-terminal 0x2101 E. config-register 0x2102 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/network-management/router-power-on-boot-sequence-config-register.html Which of the following commands globally enables the BPDU guard feature? A. spanning-tree portfast default B. spanning-tree portfast C. spanning-tree bpduguard enable D. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/performance-with-spanning-tree.html What are some perceived benefits of controller-based networks as compared to traditional networks? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind B. The use of APIs to mass-configure network devices, allowing for more consistency and fewer errors C. The use of DevOps approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity What are the functions of routing tables? (Choose two) A. Identifying routes to networks based on the destination address B. Identifying how to reach unknown destinations C. Using consistent metrics to ensure optimal routing D. Identifying routes based on information learned statically or dynamically https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/functions-of-routing.html Which of the following describes the PVST+ protocol? A. Assumes one 802.1D spanning tree for the entire bridged network B. Provides a separate 802.1D spanning tree for each virtual LAN, or VLAN, configured C. Provides fast conversion with a single instance of STP D. Provides fast conversion with an instance of spanning tree per VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html What is the field that is used on modern systems that allows an IP packet to be marked with a specific QoS value? A. EXP B. CoS C. DSCP D. Traffic Class Of the figures shown, which depicts an accurate Clos Architecture? A. Topology A B. Topology B C. Topology C D. Topology D Which options are not one of the manageable QoS characteristics of network traffic? (Choose two) A. Delay B. Jitter C. Queue size D. Clock rate E. Bandwidth F. Loss You have verified the interface status with the “show interface“ command. What other steps should you consider when troubleshooting the physical connectivity between devices? (Choose three) A. Make sure you have the correct type of cable for the connection you are making B. Try replacing a suspect cable with a known good cable C. Restart the router D. Ensure the interface is enabled E. Upgrade the router\'s IOS Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two) A. Internet B. Internet VPN C. MPLS VPN D. Ethernet VPN E. Intercloud If you want to be alerted when a device configuration differs from the intended configuration, what should you implement? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Which command is used to verify your OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies? A. show ospf neighbor B. show ipv6 brief C. show ipv6 ospf D. show ipv6 ospf neighbor Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 Which option is not one of the most commonly deployed virtualization vendors and products? A. Oracle XenSpace B. Microsoft Hyper-V C. VMware vCenter D. Red Hat KVM Which of the following describes the STP protocol? A. Assumes one 802.1D spanning tree for the entire bridged network B. Provides a separate 802.1D spanning tree for each virtual LAN, or VLAN, configured C. Provides fast conversion with a single instance of STP D. Provides fast conversion with an instance of spanning tree per VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html What option(s) are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Rapid elasticity B. Agile network access C. Measured service D. Proactive service Identify the statements that accurately describe the spanning-tree root bridge and root port election processes. (Choose two) A. The lowest bridge ID, or BID, signifies which switch will be elected as the root bridge B. The highest Media Access Control, or MAC, address breaks a root bridge election tie C. The highest cost path is the basis for electing a root port D. The port unique identifier, or ID, is used as a criterion for root port selection https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/spanning-tree-operations.html Routing tables can be populated in a number of different ways. Which of the following describes the static routing route type. A. Router attached to this network B. The router interface has a local IP address C. A system administrator manually enters static routes directly into the configuration D. Learned by exchanging routing information E. Used when no explicit route to a destination is found https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/identification-of-the-path.html What is the purpose of subnetting? A. To translate an IPv4 address into an IPv6 address B. To take multiple networks and combine them into a single larger network C. To take a Class A network and turn it into a Class B or Class C network D. To translate a public IPv4 address into a private IPv4 address E. To take a single network and divide it into multiple smaller networks Please choose the correct sequence of the following data encapsulation steps: 1. The layer 3 header is added to the data before being passed on the next layer. 2. A header is added to previous data and is passed to the Internet layer. 3. A trailer, usually the frame check sequence of FCS, and a header are added. 4. An application sends user data. A. 4, 3, 2, 1 B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. 4, 2, 1, 3 D. 3, 4, 2, 1 Refer to the diagram. What is the official name of the network (Network A) that is broadcast by an AP? A. SSID B. BSS C. ESS D. SRDID What command is used to verify ARP cache entries? A. show arp B. arp C. arp timeout D. show arp traffic Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. Identify the characteristics of layer 3 addressing. (Choose two) A. The TCP/IP protocol stack uses IP B. Ethernet uses Media Access Control, or MAC, addresses C. Layer 3 addresses are assigned to network devices and hosts that provide layer 3 functions D. Network devices are used to maintain the routing table E. Unique Media Access Control, or MAC, addresses are assigned to each PC and each router interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/tcpip-internet-layer.html What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis What is the purpose of the “logging synchronous“ command? A. It enables synchronous sequence numbering for syslog messages B. It enables password checking on the vty and console lines C. It sets an inactivity timer for the console and vty lines D. It prevents syslog messages from interrupting current commands you are typing in E. It disables timestamps for syslog messages You are configuring dynamic NAT on your Cisco IOS router. Which command is used to verify the interfaces that are being used as the outside interface and the inside interface? A. show interfaces B. show ip route C. show ip nat translations D. show ip interface brief E. show ip interface F. show ip nat statistics Suppose two APs are located near each other. Which channel use strategy will result in nonoverlapping channels for Wi-Fi use? (Choose two) A. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and channel 2 on AP-B. B. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and 5-GHz channel 48 on AP-B. C. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 40 on AP-B. D. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 37 on AP-B. enable secret [password] is hashed using the _______ algorithm. A. MD5 B. AH C. PSK D. ESP E. WPA2 You want to verify the Cisco IOS software version, ROM version, amount of memory, type of processor, number and types of interfaces, as well as the configuration register value on your 2900 series IOS router. What command will allow you to accomplish this? A. Show startup-configuration B. Show running-configuration C. Show version D. Show flash Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS Devices using a wireless LAN must operate in which one of the following modes? A. Round-robin access B. Half duplex C. Full duplex D. None of these answers Which command is used to enable port security on an interface? A. switchport port-security mac-address sticky B. show port-security interface C. switchport port-security D. switchport port-security violation shutdown https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/switch-security.html Consider the following scenario: Host A has IP address 192.168.6.3 and MAC address 0800:0111:3333. Host B has IP address 192.168.7.3 and MAC address 0800:0222:4444. The router has IP address 192.168.7.1 and MAC address 0800:0444:1111. When Host B receives a packet from Host A, the frame contains the source and destination IP and MAC addresses. What should be the destination MAC address? A. 0800:0444:1111 B. 192.168.7.3 C. 192.168.6.3 D. 0800:0222:4444 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two) A. Network A - 172.16.3.48/26 B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25 C. Network A - 172.16.3.192/26 D. Link A - 172.16.3.0/30 E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30 F. Link A - 172.16.3.112/30 What is the election of a designated port for a segment based on? A. The lowest BID B. The lowest root path cost C. The lowest MAC address D. The lowest priority

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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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