Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Routing tables can be populated in a number of different ways. Which of the following describes the local host routes route type. A. Router attached to this network B. The router interface has a local IP address C. A system administrator manually enters static routes directly into the configuration D. Learned by exchanging routing information E. Used when no explicit route to a destination is found https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/identification-of-the-path.html Which end-to-end connectivity troubleshooting tool allows the observation of the path between two hosts? A. Ping B. Telnet C. Address Resolution Protocol, or ARP D. Traceroute https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-connectivity.html You are configuring port security on a Catalyst IOS switch. You need to choose a violation mode that will deny frames that are in violation of the port security settings while still allowing frames that are not in violation. In addition, syslog messages need to be generated and the port security violation counter must increase each time a violation occurs. Which port security violation mode should you choose? A. Err-disable B. Protect C. Shutdown D. Disable E. Restrict Robust wireless encryption is based on which of the following algorithms? A. WEP B. AES C. DES D. IPsec What will the following IPv4 ACL accomplish when applied inbound on interface FastEthernet0/0 of your Cisco ISR? access-list 147 deny tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 eq 23 A. Prevent any device with an IP address from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 from establishing a telnet connection to any device with an IP address from 10.1.1.0 to 10.1.1.255 B. Allow any device with an IP address from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 from establishing a telnet connection to any device with an IP address from 10.1.1.0 to 10.1.1.255 C. Allow any device with an IP address from 10.1.1.0 to 10.1.1.255 from establishing a telnet connection to any device with an IP address from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 D. Allow any device with an IP address from 10.1.1.0 to 10.1.1.255 from establishing an ssh connection to any device with an IP address from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 E. Prevent any device with an IP address from 10.1.1.0 to 10.1.1.255 from establishing a telnet connection to any device with an IP address from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 F. Prevent any device with an IP address from 10.1.1.0 to 10.1.1.255 from establishing a telnet connection to the local router Which option should be used with the “switchport trunk allowed vlan“ command to include specified VLANs in the existing list of allowed VLANs on a trunk link? A. add B. except C. remove D. none E. all You are using CDP to build a network topology. Which command is used to verify the IPv4 address of the neighboring Cisco IOS device? A. show interfaces B. show cdp C. show ip interfaces D. show cdp neighbors E. show cdp neighbors detail F. show ip interface brief For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two) A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/packet-delivery-process.html You have a Class A network with a /27 subnet mask. How many hosts can be addressed in that network? A. 62 B. 6 C. 2 D. 30 E. 14 F. 126 Regarding lightweight AP modes, which one of the following is true? A. An AP can operate in multiple modes at the same time. B. An AP only has one possible mode of operation. C. The Run mode is the default mode. D. The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis. When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected? A. Passive B. Desirable C. On D. Auto E. Active Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 Which of the following connections require a crossover cable? (Choose three) A. Router to router B. Router to switch C. Switch to PC D. PC to router E. Switch to switch Which address type is not supported by IPv6? A. Multicast B. Broadcast C. Anycast D. Unicast Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model? A. Cisco Open SDN Controller B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) D. None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane. Looking at the exhibit, what key:value pair option has a value that is numeric in nature? A. ”upTime”: ”45 days, 13:36:14.80”, B. ”lastUpdated”: ”2019-10-29 02:52:00”, C. ”managementIpAddress”: ”10.230.1.1”, D. ”lastUpdateTime”: 1572317520439 If a lightweight AP provides at least one BSS for wireless clients, which one of the following modes does it use? A. Local B. Normal C. Monitor D. Client By default, no password is required to connect to the console port. Which commands are required to enable local line authentication for the console port? (Choose two) A. enable B. exec-timeout C. privilege D. login E. secret F. password What is the result of issuing the command “no service password-encryption“ on a Cisco IOS router? A. All future passwords will be stored as plain text in the running configuration B. All current encrypted passwords and future passwords will be encrypted in the running configuration C. All current encrypted passwords and future passwords will be stored as plain text in the running configuration D. All future passwords will be encrypted in the running configuration A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two) A. Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. B. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. C. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, and will save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config D. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, but will not save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config Which DSCP marking group was created to be backward compatible with Internet Protocol Precedence (IPP) values? A. EF B. AF C. CS D. PF Which prefix correctly identifies an IPv6 link-local address? A. FD00::/8 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. 2000::/3 E. F8E0::/10 From the following options, what are the required REST API attributes? (Choose two) A. JSON-formatted data B. Unlayered systems C. Layered systems D. Client-server architecture What is the purpose of the “service password-encryption“ command? A. It encrypts all passwords on your router. B. It encrypts the line console password only. C. It encrypts the vty password only. D. It is not a valid cisco command Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two) A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes. B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed. C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks. D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame. E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-5-virtual-lans-vlans/vlans-review.html VLAN0001 has a Bridge ID priority of 32769. What makes up this value? A. A priority of 32768 B. An address of 081f.f34e.b800 C. A sys-id-ext of 1 D. A forward delay of 15 seconds You are looking at the MAC address 00:00:0c:43:2e:08. Which hexadecimal values in the MAC address represent the vendor-assigned portion of the MAC address? A. 43:2e:08 B. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 C. 2e:08 D. c:43:2e:08 E. 00:0c:43:2e:08 F. 0c:43:2e:08 Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in? A. Traffic classification B. Traffic shaping C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic policing It is typical for server processors to utilize a technique that allows each physical processing core to be split into a number of virtual cores; this is commonly referred to as __________. A. processor virtualization B. multi-threading C. virtual processing D. processor switching You need to create a wildcard mask for the entire Class B private IPv4 address space; 172.16.0.0/16 through 172.31.0.0/16. What is the wildcard mask? A. 0.0.15.255 B. 0.15.255.255 C. 0.0.31.255 D. 0.31.255.255 E. 0.0.7.255 F. 0.7.255.255 During a maintenance window, you make some changes to R2. You document these changes in your configuration management system. Later that night, you are called in to fix an issue that requires you to make additional changes to R2. The next morning your co-worker addresses another issue but this time on R1. All of these changes are documented properly but neither you or nor your coworker discuss the changes. These changes stay implemented for months. What is this best described as? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring What occurs when there are no more port numbers for PAT to use during translation? A. Packets are forwarded as is B. A port number will be chosen from the range 512 to 1023 C. A port number will be chosen from the range 1024 to 65535 D. Packets are dropped E. Packets are buffered until there are available port numbers F. A port number will be chosen from the range 0 to 511 Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three) A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default. B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports. C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity. E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html You are setting up a Cisco IOS router as a DHCP server. Which command is used to identify the IPv4 addresses that will be in the DHCP pool? A. network B. dns-server C. default-router D. ip dhcp excluded-address E. lease F. ip dhcp pool G. domain-name An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead? A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN Which of the following best describes a virtual network function in a public cloud service? A. A subset of a physical networking device, configured by the cloud provider and allocated for use by that customer only B. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer, but with no direct customer access to the server that provides the service C. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer D. Any networking feature implemented on a VM in a cloud service Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. Which dynamic routing protocols are examples of link-state routing protocols? (Choose two) A. BGP B. RIP C. EIGRP D. OSPF E. IS-IS A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two) A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. D. The switch discards both the first and second frame. Which Cisco IOS command is used to advertise a default route into an OSPF domain regardless of whether a default static route is configured? A. default-information originate B. default-information originate always C. default-information originate permanent D. default-information originate no-check Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring You are currently using PAT to translate private IPv4 addresses to the public IPv4 address of your router interface. Users complain that on occasion Internet connections fail. You determine that these failures are a result of PAT running out of port numbers for unique translations. What should you do to resolve this issue? A. Obtain another public IPv4 address from your ISP and configure it on another router interface along with the ip nat outside command B. Purchase more port numbers from your ISP and assign them to NAT C. Obtain another public IPv4 address from your ISP configure static NAT D. Obtain another public IPv4 address from your ISP and configure dynamic NAT E. Obtain another public IPv4 address from your ISP and use both IPv4 addresses in a NAT pool that PAT will use for overloading Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch? A. 1 through 1001 B. 2 through 1001 C. 1 through 1002 D. 2 through 1005 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two) A. The LLQ B. Queue 1 C. Queue 2 D. Queue 3 What should be checked when troubleshooting IPv6 end-to-end connectivity? (Choose three) A. Incorrect default gateways B. Physical location of devices C. Physical connection issues D. Blocked traffic from ACLs What are the considerations when using First Hop Redundancy Protocols? (Choose two) A. They must exist in their own VLAN B. They allow you to implement multiple physical routers in your environment, but have them appear as a single virtual router to your end stations C. They require additional configuration for the end user D. The transition from one forwarding router to another is transparent to the end devices You have an ACL entry that has the address of 192.168.101.0 and the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.255. What is the range of IPv4 addresses that will be affected by this ACL? A. 192.168.101.100 through 192.168.101.200 B. 192.168.101.200 through 192.168.101.255 C. 192.168.101.0 through 192.168.101.100 D. 192.168.101.0 through 192.168.101.255 E. 192.168.101.0 through 0.0.0.255 The Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards? A. WEP B. WPA2 C. 802.11 D. AES Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three) A. Switch A - Fa0/0 B. Switch A - Fa0/1 C. Switch B - Fa0/0 D. Switch B - Fa0/1 E. Switch C - Fa0/0 F. Switch C - Fa0/1 Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. What can be verified in the output of show interfaces trunk? (Choose five) A. The VLANs allowed on the trunk B. The encapsulation method used for the trunk C. The access vlan the port is a member of if it is not a trunk D. The interfaces are trunks E. The Native VLAN for the trunk F. The administrative mode used to form the trunk G. If DTP is enabled or disabled Which of the following are characteristics of IP? (Choose three) A. Connection-oriented protocol B. Guaranteed delivery C. Connectionless protocol D. Transport layer protocol E. Best-effort delivery F. Network layer protocol You have implemented DAI on a Layer 2 switch in your network. Now you want to monitor the ARP message rates with an average of four received ARP messages a second. Which command(s) would need to be utilized to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. ip arp inspection limit rate 8 burst interval 2 B. ip arp inspection limit rate 4 burst interval 2 C. ip arp inspection limit rate 10 burst interval 5 D. ip arp inspection limit rate 20 burst interval 5

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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