Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 Identify the statements that describe how ACLs function? (Choose two) A. They use top-down processing B. They always prevent users outside a network from gaining access C. A match results in immediate execution D. The end of the ACL has an implicit allow any https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html Which UTP cable category introduced 1Gbps throughput? A. 6 B. 5e C. 5 D. 3 You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements? A. 10.188.31.0/26 B. 10.188.31.0/25 C. 10.188.31.0/28 D. 10.188.31.0/27 E. 10.188.31.0/29 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/variable-length-subnet-mask.html Which RFC defines the private IPv4 address ranges? A. 2784 B. 4443 C. 1985 D. 7868 E. 1918 F. 2328 G. 792 Refer to the graphic. Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server? A. the MAC address of router interface e0 B. the MAC address of router interface e1 C. the MAC address of the server network interface D. the MAC address of host A Consider the following scenario: Host A has IP address 192.168.6.3 and MAC address 0800:0111:3333. Host B has IP address 192.168.7.3 and MAC address 0800:0222:4444. The router has IP address 192.168.7.1 and MAC address 0800:0444:1111. When Host B receives a packet from Host A, the frame contains the source and destination IP and MAC addresses. What should be the source MAC address? A. 0800:0444:1111 B. 192.168.7.3 C. 192.168.6.3 D. 0800:0222:4444 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html Looking at the exhibit, what key:value pair option has a value that is numeric in nature? A. ”upTime”: ”45 days, 13:36:14.80”, B. ”lastUpdated”: ”2019-10-29 02:52:00”, C. ”managementIpAddress”: ”10.230.1.1”, D. ”lastUpdateTime”: 1572317520439 Review the topology. All subnets exist in OSPF area 0. Which command, if issued on R3, would show all the LSAs known by R3? A. Show running-config B. Show ip ospf interface C. Show ip ospf neighbors D. Show ip route ospf E. Show ip ospf database Identify the statements that accurately describe the spanning-tree root bridge and root port election processes. (Choose two) A. The lowest bridge ID, or BID, signifies which switch will be elected as the root bridge B. The highest Media Access Control, or MAC, address breaks a root bridge election tie C. The highest cost path is the basis for electing a root port D. The port unique identifier, or ID, is used as a criterion for root port selection https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/spanning-tree-operations.html Which of these should be checked when troubleshooting end-to-end connectivity between IP addresses? (Choose three) A. The physical connection B. The default gateway C. The domain name resolution address D. The computer name E. The routing protocol Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers? A. Switch1 B. Switch2 C. Switch3 D. Switch4 Which statements describe the benefits of using a variable-length subnet mask? (Choose two) A. It provides a better-defined network hierarchy within an address plan B. It ensures that only a single subnet mask within an entire Class is used C. It enables more efficient use of IP addresses D. It prevents aggregation of network addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/variable-length-subnet-mask.html What steps are involved in configuring a SPAN session? (Choose three) A. Associate a SPAN session number with the source port of VLANs B. Associate a SPAN number with the destination C. Instruct the router to copy all traffic that it sends and receives D. Verify the configuration E. Configure the destination port as a source port R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device (referenced with the arrow) that communicates with wireless clients? A. Wireless controller B. Access point C. Router D. Wireless bridge A poorly designed network typically includes which of the following? (Choose three) A. Security vulnerabilities B. Large broadcast domains C. Small broadcast domains D. Proper documentation E. Management and support challenges What is the purpose of InterVLAN routing? A. To increase the scalability of a VLAN B. To transport packets from one VLAN to another VLAN C. To convert packets from Layer 2 to Layer 3 D. To transport packets within the same VLAN E. To increase the security of a VLAN Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring How many IPv4 ACLs can you apply to a router interface? A. Four, two inbound and two outbound B. Two, one inbound and one outbound C. As many as you need, inbound or outbound D. Only one, inbound or outbound Which of the following are required attributes of a REST-based API? (Choose two) A. Uses HTTP B. Objects noted as to whether they can be cached C. Classful operation D. Client/server architecture Which options are not one of the manageable QoS characteristics of network traffic? (Choose two) A. Delay B. Jitter C. Queue size D. Clock rate E. Bandwidth F. Loss Where is the start-up configuration file stored and loaded from by default on a Cisco IOS router? A. FLASH B. NVRAM C. RAM D. TFTP E. ROM Which mode must be used to enable the DHCP relay agent mechanism? A. Global configuration mode B. User EXEC mode C. Privileged EXEC mode D. Interface configuration mode https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/configuring-a-router.html Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two) A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast. B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type. C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address. D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID. E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/ipv6-address-types.html With IEEE 802.1x, which role does a LAN switch typically play? A. Authentication server B. Supplicant C. Translator D. Authenticator In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities? A. The address of the attacker B. The address of the reflector C. The address of the victim D. The address of the router Which command is used to monitor and verify ACLs? A. show access-lists B. show port-security C. show running-config D. show ip interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/type-of-acls.html What would the following access list entry accomplish when configuring your router? permit tcp host 192.0.0.130 host 192.0.0.227 eq 80 (Choose two) A. Without any other statements, all other hosts would be denied access to 192.0.0.277 B. It permits traffic from 192.0.0.130 to access 192.0.0.277 using anything but HTTP C. It permits traffic from 192.0.0.130 to access 192.0.0.277 using FTP D. It permits traffic from 192.0.0.130 to access 192.0.0.277 using HTTP Which priority value should you set for a switch to give it the best chance of remaining as a root bridge in the long term? A. 32768 B. 4096 C. 61440 D. 0 (zero) You are troubleshooting an interface issue on your Cisco IOS ISR. The output of “show ip interface brief“ indicates that Ethernet0/0 is down, down. What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose three) A. There is no cable attached to Ethernet0/0 B. The device at the other end of the cable is powered off C. The Ethernet0/0 interface is shutdown D. The interface on the device at the other end of the cable is shutdown E. There is an encapsulation mismatch between the devices at each end of the cable What is the first step in determining the OSPFv3 router-id? A. Are there loopback interfaces B. Are the interfaces up, up C. Are there physical interfaces with IPv4 addresses D. Are the router IDs manually assigned by the administrator Which prefix correctly identifies an IPv6 link-local address? A. FD00::/8 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. 2000::/3 E. F8E0::/10 What is the name of the protocol that is used by IEEE 802.1x devices to communicate with the authenticator and authentication server? A. EAP B. EAPoL C. RADIUS D. TACACS+ Which command could you enter to encrypt passwords? A. enable secret B. username {username} secret {password} C. service password-encryption D. All of the above E. None of the above What are some of the wireless LAN controller (WLC) capabilities? A. Security management B. Dynamic RF management to assign channels to APs C. RF monitoring to gather information about the channel D. Ease of deployment by programming all RF policies and wireless LAN policies on all APs E. All of these are correct. You have implemented DAI on a Layer 2 switch in your network. Now you want to monitor the ARP message rates with an average of four received ARP messages a second. Which command(s) would need to be utilized to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. ip arp inspection limit rate 8 burst interval 2 B. ip arp inspection limit rate 4 burst interval 2 C. ip arp inspection limit rate 10 burst interval 5 D. ip arp inspection limit rate 20 burst interval 5 Which command is used to verify the DHCP relay agent address that has been set up on your Cisco IOS router? A. show ip interface brief B. show ip dhcp bindings C. show ip route D. show ip interface E. show interface F. show ip dhcp pool A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen? A. session B. transport C. network D. data link E. physical https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-1-internetworking/data-encapsulation.html Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in? A. Traffic classification B. Traffic shaping C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic policing Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two) A. discarding B. listening C. learning D. forwarding E. disabled https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Which command enables RSTP on a switch? A. spanning-tree uplinkfast B. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst C. spanning-tree backbonefast D. spanning-tree mode mst https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/performance-with-spanning-tree.html Of the different public cloud WAN options, which have quality of service capabilities to ensure end-to-end application requirements? (Choose three) A. Internet B. Intercloud exchange C. Ethernet WAN D. MPLS VPN E. Internet VPN When comparing controller-based networks and traditional networks what are some perceived benefits from a controller-based perspective? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow the entire network to be instantiated and not just a single device at a time B. The use of automation through APIs that enable data-driven models C. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity Which of the following describes the manual IP addressing mechanism when configuring a DHCP server? A. A network administrator assigns an IP address to a client B. A client is assigned an IP address for a limited amount of time C. A non-expiring IP address is assigned to a client https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/router-as-a-dhcp-server.html When comparing next-generation IPS to traditional IPS, what additional capabilities can be leveraged to more efficiently block traffic? (Choose three) A. AVC B. Signature-based filtering C. Contextual awareness D. Event impact level Which IOS command always displays OSPF hello timer settings? A. show ip protocols B. show ip route C. show ip ospf interface D. show ip ospf neighbor E. debug ip ospf events What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis __________ means that the QoS tool changes one or more header fields, setting a value in the header. A. Marking B. Classifying C. Insertion D. Qualifying Which of the following best describes a virtual network function in a public cloud service? A. A subset of a physical networking device, configured by the cloud provider and allocated for use by that customer only B. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer, but with no direct customer access to the server that provides the service C. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer D. Any networking feature implemented on a VM in a cloud service Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. Command history is enabled by default. What actions can be completed using the command history feature? (Choose three) A. Commands previously stored in the history buffer can be recalled B. Notepad configurations can be saved to the buffer for future configurations C. Running configuration files can be saved to configure a second internetworking device D. The buffer size of the command history can be set E. The command buffer contents can be displayed https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-4-cisco-ios/command-line-interface.html Each virtual OS instance that exists on a server is referred to as a ___________ A. KVM B. VM C. CSR D. hypervisor Which command should you use on a router to verify the presence of a default gateway? A. show ip route B. tracert C. traceroute D. route print https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/identification-of-the-path.html

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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