Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three) A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965. B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1. C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320. D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1. E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1. F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2. Which command is used to enable port security on an interface? A. switchport port-security violation mode B. switchport port-security C. switchport access vlan vlan-number D. switchport mode access E. switchport port-security maximum number F. switchport port-security mac-address mac_address Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 Robust wireless encryption is based on which of the following algorithms? A. WEP B. AES C. DES D. IPsec The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of Secure-shutdown. Which of the following answer must be true about this interface at this time? A. The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. B. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. C. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. D. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10. An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two) A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+. B. RSTP defines new port roles. C. RSTP defines no new port states. D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet? A. 802.3ad B. 802.1w C. 802.1D D. 802.1Q https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/dynamic-trunking-protocol.html Which end-to-end connectivity troubleshooting tool allows the observation of the path between two hosts? A. Ping B. Telnet C. Address Resolution Protocol, or ARP D. Traceroute https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-connectivity.html Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B Which option is not one of the most commonly deployed virtualization vendors and products? A. Oracle XenSpace B. Microsoft Hyper-V C. VMware vCenter D. Red Hat KVM Which commands are used to enable a router interface and configure it with the IPv4 address 10.1.1.1/26? (Choose two) A. no shutdown B. ip 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.192 C. address 10.1.1.1 255.252.255.192 D. shutdown E. enable F. ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.192 Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model? A. Cisco Open SDN Controller B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) D. None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane. Which command is used to disable unused switchports? A. no shutdown B. off C. disable D. shutdown E. quit Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS When comparing controller-based networks and traditional networks what are some perceived benefits from a controller-based perspective? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow the entire network to be instantiated and not just a single device at a time B. The use of automation through APIs that enable data-driven models C. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands Devices using a wireless LAN must operate in which one of the following modes? A. Round-robin access B. Half duplex C. Full duplex D. None of these answers You need to prevent your router from receiving and processing RIPv2 routing updates. How can you accomplish this? A. Create an ACL denying TCP port 520 packets and apply it outbound on the interface B. Create an ACL denying UDP port 520 packets and apply it inbound on the interface C. Create an ACL denying TCP port 520 packets and apply it inbound on the interface D. Create an ACL denying UDP port 520 packets and apply it outbound on the interface E. Enable the passive interface feature on the interface You are setting up remote access on your Cisco IOS switch. What is the purpose of the “login“ command when issued in [line vty] configuration mode? A. It prompts remote users to provide a password B. It allows remote users to connect without a password C. It enables remote login D. It disables remote login E. It grants the login privileged level Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Wireless controller C. Lightweight AP D. Wireless router Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification Which option is a valid representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:010F:0001:0000:0000:0000:0ACD? A. 2001:db8:10F:1::ACD B. 2001:db8:010F::1:0ACD C. 2001:db8:01F:01::0ACD D. 2001:0db8:1F:1::ACD E. 21:db8:1F:1:ACD Which VTP mode forwards advertisements but does not synchronize VLAN configuration? A. Client B. Off C. Transparent D. Server Network device addresses use binary system to define their location on the network. How do the decimal and binary number systems work? (Choose three) A. Mathematics is based on the binary system B. Computers are based on the decimal system C. When performing powers of 2 calculations, the least significant bit is equal to 2^1 D. In the decimal system, the digits are 0,1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 E. Powers of 2 provide the basis for binary values F. The binary system uses only the digits 0 and 1 If you want to be alerted when a device configuration differs from the intended configuration, what should you implement? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. Which command is used to verify your OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies? A. show ospf neighbor B. show ipv6 brief C. show ipv6 ospf D. show ipv6 ospf neighbor What are the considerations when using First Hop Redundancy Protocols? (Choose two) A. They must exist in their own VLAN B. They allow you to implement multiple physical routers in your environment, but have them appear as a single virtual router to your end stations C. They require additional configuration for the end user D. The transition from one forwarding router to another is transparent to the end devices What should you see on the console when you start a Cisco router? A. Cisco IOS debug messages B. The diagnostic console menu C. A graphical picture showing the real-time status of the LED D. Cisco IOS software setup mode https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/layer-2-to-layer-3-boundary-design.html What are the symptoms of a spanning-tree failure? (Choose two) A. Link loads decrease as frames are discarded from the loop B. Nontrunking ports become trunking ports C. Switches experience frequent MAC address table changes D. Traffic increases exponentially if additional loops exist https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/redundant-topologies.html Which of the following parameters are necessary when creating a new WLAN with the controller GUI? (Choose two) A. SSID B. VLAN number C. Interface D. BSSID E. IP subnet Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses is used in DHCP assignment process before a host has a valid IP address? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco voice network? (Choose two) A. Jitter < 30 ms B. Loss < 1% C. One-way delay < 200 ms D. Jitter < 50 ms E. Loss < 2% F. Round-trip delay < 200 ms What command should you configure globally to enable a 15-minute recovery time for the port security errdisable state? A. errdisable recovery interval 15 B. errdisable recovery timer 15 C. errdisable recovery timer 900 D. errdisable recovery interval 900 Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Which command is used to apply an ACL to an interface? A. access-group B. ip access-group C. ip access-list D. ip access-class E. access-class F. access-list You are tasked with configuring a switch so that it can be accessed remotely. What do you need to configure in order to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. The interface range in use B. A hostname for the switch C. An IP address and subnet mask D. A default gateway https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 Which hash method is used by default when using the enable secret Cisco IOS command? A. 3DES B. MD5 C. SHA-0 D. HMAC Your Cisco IOS router is acting as a DHCP server. Which command will display the addresses that have been handed out to clients on the LAN? A. show ip dhcp assignments B. show ip dhcp address C. show ip dhcp conflicts D. show ip dhcp bindings E. show ip dhcp pool It is typical for server processors to utilize a technique that allows each physical processing core to be split into a number of virtual cores; this is commonly referred to as __________. A. processor virtualization B. multi-threading C. virtual processing D. processor switching You have a network address of 172.16.0.0/22, which equals a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. Determine the block size of this subnet. A. 6 B. 8 C. 2 D. 16 E. 4 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html Which command displays information about security options configured on an interface? A. show port-security interface [interface-id] B. show port-security [interface-id] C. show port-security[address] D. show security [interface-id] Command history is enabled by default. What actions can be completed using the command history feature? (Choose three) A. Commands previously stored in the history buffer can be recalled B. Notepad configurations can be saved to the buffer for future configurations C. Running configuration files can be saved to configure a second internetworking device D. The buffer size of the command history can be set E. The command buffer contents can be displayed https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-4-cisco-ios/command-line-interface.html A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two) A. The LLQ B. Queue 1 C. Queue 2 D. Queue 3 You have the network 192.168.5.0/24 that has been subnetted to /30 networks. What is the subnet ID of the seventh subnet that was created? A. 192.168.5.28/30 B. 192.168.5.16/30 C. 192.168.5.12/30 D. 192.168.5.24/30 E. 192.168.5.32/30 F. 192.168.5.20/30 Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes? A. 10.0.0.0 /21 B. 10.0.0.0 /22 C. 10.0.0.0 /23 D. 10.0.0.0 /24 What is the field that is used on modern systems that allows an IP packet to be marked with a specific QoS value? A. EXP B. CoS C. DSCP D. Traffic Class Routing tables can be populated in a number of different ways. Which of the following describes the default route type. A. Router attached to this network B. The router interface has a local IP address C. A system administrator manually enters static routes directly into the configuration D. Learned by exchanging routing information E. Used when no explicit route to a destination is found https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/identification-of-the-path.html Which of the following commands is used to enable a serial interface? A. no shutdown B. interface serial C. show controllers D. clockrate E. bandwidth https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/wan-technologies/serial-encapsulation.html Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task? A. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown B. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown D. SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown E. SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown Which command is used to verify the interfaces that are participating in the RIPv2 routing process? A. show ip rip B. show ip protocols C. show ip route D. show rip interfaces E. show ip interface brief Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses? A. 255.255.255.0 B. 255.255.254.0 C. 255.255.252.0 D. 255.255.248.0 What are considerations when troubleshooting ACL issues? (Choose two) A. They use top-down processing with immediate execution upon a match B. They use bottom-up processing with immediate execution upon a match C. If you don't match anything in the ACL, there is an implicit denial at the end D. Outbound ACLs affect the dynamic routing protocol

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources

These are the best CCNA training resources online:

Click Here to get the Cisco CCNA Gold Bootcamp, the most comprehensive and highest rated CCNA course online with a 4.8 star rating from over 30,000 public reviews. I recommend this as your primary study source to learn all the topics on the exam.

Want to take your practice tests to the next level? AlphaPrep’s purpose-built Cisco test engine has the largest question bank, adaptive questions, and advanced reporting which tells you exactly when you’re ready to pass the real exam. Click here for your free trial.

The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

The Cisco CCNA 200-301 practice exam tests include questions to test your knowledge and skills related to Cisco networking fundamentals, which helps you pass the actual exam.

The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Complete this form to get your score report

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources