Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Which statements identify VLAN trunking behavior across IEEE 802.1Q links? (Choose two) A. By default, access ports carrytraffic for one VLAN only B. The layer 2 header must remain static to keep track of VLAN origins C. All VLANs have a tag, except the native VLAN D. The native VLAN should be left alone for security https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation? A. application B. presentation C. session D. transport E. internet F. data link https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-1-internetworking/the-osi-reference-model.html An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead? A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN Which statements describe neighbor discovery functionality in IPv6? (Choose two) A. Determines the link layer address of a neighbor B. Finds neighbor switches on the link C. Is achieved by using Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol for IPv6, or DHCPv6 with IPv6 multicast D. Queries for duplicate addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/ipv6-header-and-icmp.html What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1? A. ::1 B. :: C. 2000::/3 D. 0::/10 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html You are configuring dynamic NAT on your Cisco IOS router. Which command is used to verify the interfaces that are being used as the outside interface and the inside interface? A. show interfaces B. show ip route C. show ip nat translations D. show ip interface brief E. show ip interface F. show ip nat statistics Which physical layer media are used today for connecting network devices (switches and routers) together in a LAN? (Choose two) A. Coaxial B. Twisted copper pair C. Fiber optic D. Wireless Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 Which options are available for obtaining a license file? (Choose two) A. Cisco Registration Manager B. Cisco License Manager C. Cisco Portal D. Cisco PAK E. Cisco License Registration Portal F. Cisco Manager What is the name of the Cisco feature that allows for the identification of protocols that are traditionally hard to classify because of their operation? A. DSCP B. NBAR C. DTerm D. CBWFQ What is the purpose of subnetting? A. To translate an IPv4 address into an IPv6 address B. To take multiple networks and combine them into a single larger network C. To take a Class A network and turn it into a Class B or Class C network D. To translate a public IPv4 address into a private IPv4 address E. To take a single network and divide it into multiple smaller networks VLAN0001 has a Bridge ID priority of 32769. What makes up this value? A. A priority of 32768 B. An address of 081f.f34e.b800 C. A sys-id-ext of 1 D. A forward delay of 15 seconds A _________ is a virtual instance of a traditional networking device that a consumer can use in a cloud. A. virtual network function B. virtual network appliance C. network virtualized element D. network cloud device Which actions must be performed to implement SNMP access to the router? (Choose two) A. Configure a community access string with a read-write privileged to permit access to SNMP B. Authenticate access to MIB objects and functions as embedded passwords C. Set the system contact and location of the SNMP agent on the router D. Obtain values for the 5 minute exponentially moving average of the CPU busy percentage https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/network-management/snmp-v1-v2c-v3-overview-and-configuration.html Which hash method is used by default when using the enable secret Cisco IOS command? A. 3DES B. MD5 C. SHA-0 D. HMAC What type of variable is being shown? Routers = [R1,R2,R3] A. List B. Dictionary C. Simple D. Unsigned integers How does the “traceroute“ command allow you to verify if you have connectivity? (Choose two) A. It generates a list of IPv6 hops that successfully reached along the path B. It tests the transport layer connectivity for any TCP port C. It allows observation of the path between two hosts D. It does the same as ARP in IPv4 A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two) A. The LLQ B. Queue 1 C. Queue 2 D. Queue 3 Which of the following connections require a crossover cable? (Choose three) A. Router to router B. Router to switch C. Switch to PC D. PC to router E. Switch to switch Which statements best describe the role of a router? (Choose two) A. Routers are used to connect hosts that are in the same local area network B. Routers use a routing table to forward packets C. Routers are used to connect hosts that are in different local area networks D. Routers use a MAC address table to forward packets Refer to Exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches? A. one B. two C. six D. twelve Which switch ”show” command is used frequently when checking line and protocol status? A. show version B. show interfaces C. show running-config https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html What are some perceived benefits of controller-based networks as compared to traditional networks? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind B. The use of APIs to mass-configure network devices, allowing for more consistency and fewer errors C. The use of DevOps approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity Which of the following QoS marking fields could remain with a packet while being sent through four different routers, over different LAN and WAN links? (Choose two) A. CoS B. IPP C. DSCP D. MPLS EXP When the Cisco IOS image is located during boot, where is it loaded? A. ROM B. RAM C. TFTP D. NVRAM E. FLASH What are the possible consequences of an STP failure? (Choose two) A. Only the users that are directly connected to the switch will be affected B. Every port will transition to a blocking state C. The load on all links in the switched LAN quickly starts increasing D. Due to very high load for the CPU, the switch becomes unreachable Which statement correctly defines an anycast IPv6 address? A. Used in one-to-all communication B. Used in one-to-one communication C. Used in one-to-a-group communication D. Used in one-to-nearest communication What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72? A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72 B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72 C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72 D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/the-ipv6-address.html Connections can be verified using a variety of troubleshooting commands. Which of the following commands is used to discover the routes that packets take when traveling to their destination? A. netstat B. tracert C. ping D. nslookup https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html You need to apply an access-list to the vty lines on your router so that you can control which users can make telnet and ssh connections to the device. Which command in line vty configuration mode will apply the access-list to the vty lines? A. ip access-group access-list-number out B. access-class access-list-number out C. access-class access-list-number in D. ip access-group access-list-number in E. access-list access-list-number in F. ip access-list access-list-number in G. access-list access-list-number out Which of the following best describes a virtual network function in a public cloud service? A. A subset of a physical networking device, configured by the cloud provider and allocated for use by that customer only B. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer, but with no direct customer access to the server that provides the service C. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer D. Any networking feature implemented on a VM in a cloud service R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. You need to create a wildcard mask for the entire Class B private IPv4 address space; 172.16.0.0/16 through 172.31.0.0/16. What is the wildcard mask? A. 0.0.15.255 B. 0.15.255.255 C. 0.0.31.255 D. 0.31.255.255 E. 0.0.7.255 F. 0.7.255.255 Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands Which Cisco IOS command is used to advertise a default route into an OSPF domain regardless of whether a default static route is configured? A. default-information originate B. default-information originate always C. default-information originate permanent D. default-information originate no-check Which IPv6 command allows you to verify general parameters such as the reference bandwidth? A. show ipv6 ospf interface brief B. show ipv6 ospf C. show ipv6 route summarization D. show ipv6 protocols Which IOS command always displays OSPF hello timer settings? A. show ip protocols B. show ip route C. show ip ospf interface D. show ip ospf neighbor E. debug ip ospf events Which ICMP for IPv6 message types are informational messages? (Choose two) A. Packet too big B. Time exceeded C. Echo request D. Echo reply E. Destination unreachable https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/ipv6-header-and-icmp.html Which IPv6 prefix will the typical enterprise network receive from the service provider? A. /52 B. /56 C. /64 D. /32 E. /48 F. /60 With IEEE 802.1x, which role does a LAN switch typically play? A. Authentication server B. Supplicant C. Translator D. Authenticator The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block? A. 8 B. 6 C. 30 D. 32 E. 14 F. 16 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html Which statements describe network characteristics? (Choose three) A. Cost represents the general price of components, installation, and maintenance of the network B. Reliability indicates how protected the network is, including the information that is transmitted over the network C. Topology is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network D. Security depicts the structure of the network E. Scalability indicates how well the network can accommodate more users or data transmission requirements F. Availability is the probability of the network being available for use when required https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/the-functions-of-networking.html Which of the following parameters are necessary when creating a new WLAN with the controller GUI? (Choose two) A. SSID B. VLAN number C. Interface D. BSSID E. IP subnet Devices using a wireless LAN must operate in which one of the following modes? A. Round-robin access B. Half duplex C. Full duplex D. None of these answers From the following options, what are the required REST API attributes? (Choose two) A. JSON-formatted data B. Unlayered systems C. Layered systems D. Client-server architecture Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities? A. The address of the attacker B. The address of the reflector C. The address of the victim D. The address of the router Which type of unicast address is automatically configured on all interfaces that are enabled for IPv6? A. Unique local B. Global C. Link-local D. Site local An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. What causes speed-related port access issues? (Choose two) A. Both ends of the segment are set to autonegotiate speed B. The distance between the first and last host on the segment is too long C. The duplex setting on both ends is set to full duplex D. One end is set to autonegotiate and the other to high speed https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/troubleshooting-switch-issues.html Which DSCP marking group was created to be backward compatible with Internet Protocol Precedence (IPP) values? A. EF B. AF C. CS D. PF What is the benefit of using a leased line between two offices for connectivity? A. Reduced Delay and Jitter B. Reduced Cost C. Intranet Reduction in Traffic D. Internet Control Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Lightweight AP C. Wireless controller D. Wireless router You have implemented DAI on a Layer 2 switch in your network. Now you want to monitor the ARP message rates with an average of four received ARP messages a second. Which command(s) would need to be utilized to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. ip arp inspection limit rate 8 burst interval 2 B. ip arp inspection limit rate 4 burst interval 2 C. ip arp inspection limit rate 10 burst interval 5 D. ip arp inspection limit rate 20 burst interval 5

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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