Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch? A. 1 through 1001 B. 2 through 1001 C. 1 through 1002 D. 2 through 1005 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html Review the topology. All subnets exist in OSPF area 0. Which command, if issued on R3, would show all the LSAs known by R3? A. Show running-config B. Show ip ospf interface C. Show ip ospf neighbors D. Show ip route ospf E. Show ip ospf database Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two) A. Internet B. Internet VPN C. MPLS VPN D. Ethernet VPN E. Intercloud In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN What is the default mode of STP running on a Cisco Catalyst switch? A. PVST+ B. STP C. Rapid PVST+ D. MSTP E. RSTP Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco TelePresence video network? (Choose two) A. One-way delay < 200 ms B. Round-trip delay < 200 ms C. Loss < 5% D. Loss < 0.05% E. Jitter < 100 ms F. Jitter < 50 ms Which of the following protocols are used to auto negotiate trunk formation between two switches? A. CDP B. VTP C. DTP D. STP Which of the following are required attributes of a REST-based API? (Choose two) A. Uses HTTP B. Objects noted as to whether they can be cached C. Classful operation D. Client/server architecture When comparing next-generation IPS to traditional IPS, what additional capabilities can be leveraged to more efficiently block traffic? (Choose three) A. AVC B. Signature-based filtering C. Contextual awareness D. Event impact level Which hash method is used by default when using the enable secret Cisco IOS command? A. 3DES B. MD5 C. SHA-0 D. HMAC Which command can be used to help disable multiple ports on a switch at the same time? A. interface range B. default interface C. interface range shutdown D. shutdown range Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. Which of the following are available methods of classifying packets in DiffServ on Cisco routers? (Choose three) A. Matching the IP DSCP field B. Matching the 802.1p CoS field C. Matching fields with an extended IP ACL D. Matching the SNMP Location variable The Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards? A. WEP B. WPA2 C. 802.11 D. AES Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state? A. converged B. redundant C. provisioned D. spanned https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices? A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable. B. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk C. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1 D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20 Identify characteristics of switches. (Choose three) A. Large frame buffers use a bus or a shared memory to accomplish very fast switching B. Port speed allows ports to support a variety of data rates C. Internal switching prevents congested ports to servers D. High port density is useful in enterprises that require hundreds of switch ports E. Low per-port cost supports network designs featuring fewer users per segment, increasing the average available bandwidth per user https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/developing-design-for-layer-2.html When planning a greenfield SDA design, what traditional LAN design points should be included? (Choose two) A. The number of switchports needed in each switch B. The required speed of the switchports C. A security firewall to properly segment traffic D. The Spanning Tree mode of operation to use Which microcode is used to test the basic functionality of router hardware and determine which components are present? A. bootstrap B. ROM monitor C. ROM D. POST E. RAM F. NVRAM Which command is used to create a standard numbered IPv4 ACL? A. access-list numbered B. ip access-list C. numbered access-list D. access-list ip E. access-list All of the switches in your VTP domain are operating as servers. Which command changes the operation mode of DSW2 to client? A. vlan client B. show vlan brief C. vtp password client D. vtp mode client Which option can you choose for saving money while securing your WAN connections? A. Enterprise Managed VPN B. Service Provider VPN C. SSL VPN D. Access Control VPN A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller? A. A Northbound Interface B. A Southbound Interface C. Data plane functions D. Control plane functions Which statements describe network characteristics? (Choose three) A. Cost represents the general price of components, installation, and maintenance of the network B. Reliability indicates how protected the network is, including the information that is transmitted over the network C. Topology is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network D. Security depicts the structure of the network E. Scalability indicates how well the network can accommodate more users or data transmission requirements F. Availability is the probability of the network being available for use when required https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/the-functions-of-networking.html Which options are not one of the manageable QoS characteristics of network traffic? (Choose two) A. Delay B. Jitter C. Queue size D. Clock rate E. Bandwidth F. Loss Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands In what security zone are the public web servers located? A. DMZ B. Inside C. Outside D. Campus What is the scope of an IPv6 multicast address that starts with FF02? A. Link-local B. Global C. Site local D. Node E. Organization What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame? A. source MAC address B. source IP address C. source switch port D. destination IP address E. destination port address F. destination MAC address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/packet-delivery-process.html Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached? A. VLANs have not been created yet. B. An IP address must be configured for the port. C. The port is currently configured for access mode. D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured. E. The "no shutdown" command has not been entered for the port. You want to view the OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis. Which of the following commands can accomplish this? A. show ospf neighbors B. show ip ospf neighbor C. show ip interface D. show ospf summary https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/single-area-ospf.html An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. You are responsible for troubleshooting switches on your Fast Ethernet network. What port access issues can be found by using the ”show interface” command? (Choose two) A. Origin of cyclic redundancy check, or CRC, errors B. Speeds set differently on both ends of the segment C. Duplex autonegotiation fails to full on one and half on the other end D. Break in a cable connection on either end of the segment https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/troubleshooting-switch-issues.html Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring You have implemented DAI on a Layer 2 switch in your network. Now you want to monitor the ARP message rates with an average of four received ARP messages a second. Which command(s) would need to be utilized to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. ip arp inspection limit rate 8 burst interval 2 B. ip arp inspection limit rate 4 burst interval 2 C. ip arp inspection limit rate 10 burst interval 5 D. ip arp inspection limit rate 20 burst interval 5 Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three) A. They increase the size of collision domains. B. They allow logical grouping of users by function. C. They can enhance network security. D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains. E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains. F. They simplify switch administration. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-5-virtual-lans-vlans/vlans-review.html How many default vty lines exist on a Cisco IOS router? A. 20 B. 1 C. 5 D. 10 E. 15 What versions of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) were defined after the IEEE ratified the IEEE 802.11i security standard? (Choose two) A. WPA B. WPA2 C. WPA3 D. WPA0 You need to configure your 2960 Catalyst switch to automatically recover a port within one minute that has been placed in the err-disabled state because too many MAC addresses were learned on an interface. Which commands will accomplish this for you? (Choose two) A. errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation B. errdisable recovery interval 10 C. errdisable recovery cause bpduguard D. errdisable recovery interval 60 E. errdisable recovery interval 1 F. errdisable recovery cause security-violation Which command is used to enable port security on an interface? A. switchport port-security violation mode B. switchport port-security C. switchport access vlan vlan-number D. switchport mode access E. switchport port-security maximum number F. switchport port-security mac-address mac_address To connect a Cisco wireless LAN controller to a wired network, which of the following would you use? Assume that this connection will carry traffic to and from APs. A. Console port B. Service port C. Distribution system port D. AP data port A host with an IP address of 192.168.5.3 has an empty cache. It needs to send a packet to another host with an IP address of 192.168.6.4. The default gateway has an IP address of 192.168.5.1. What action is required for the frame header to be filled with the correct MAC address? A. The host with IP address 192.168.5.3 must send an ARP request for the MAC address ofthe host with IP address 192.168.6.4 B. The default gateway must send an Address Resolution Protocol, or ARP, request for the MAC address of the host with the 192.168.5.3 IP address C. The default gateway must send an ARP request for the MAC address of the host with the IP address of 192.168.6.4 D. The host with the IP address of 192.168.5.3 must send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html Which is the Hello and Dead interval with a Gigabit Ethernet connection for a BROADCAST Network type with IPv6 by default? A. Hello 60, Dead 120 B. Hello 10, Dead 40 C. Hello 40, Dead 10 D. Hello 20, Dead 120 You need to apply an access-list to the vty lines on your router so that you can control which users can make telnet and ssh connections to the device. Which command in line vty configuration mode will apply the access-list to the vty lines? A. ip access-group access-list-number out B. access-class access-list-number out C. access-class access-list-number in D. ip access-group access-list-number in E. access-list access-list-number in F. ip access-list access-list-number in G. access-list access-list-number out R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. Which statement correctly defines an anycast IPv6 address? A. Used in one-to-all communication B. Used in one-to-one communication C. Used in one-to-a-group communication D. Used in one-to-nearest communication What option(s) are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Rapid elasticity B. Agile network access C. Measured service D. Proactive service Your Cisco IOS router is acting as a DHCP server. Which command will display the addresses that have been handed out to clients on the LAN? A. show ip dhcp assignments B. show ip dhcp address C. show ip dhcp conflicts D. show ip dhcp bindings E. show ip dhcp pool Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP Why should you implement port security on a switch interface? A. To control which devices are allowed to access the network B. To prevent Layer 2 loops from occurring C. To prevent a unidirectional link D. To prevent MAC address flooding attacks E. To control which devices are allowed to manage the switch Which IPv6 command allows you to verify general parameters such as the reference bandwidth? A. show ipv6 ospf interface brief B. show ipv6 ospf C. show ipv6 route summarization D. show ipv6 protocols A _________ is a virtual instance of a traditional networking device that a consumer can use in a cloud. A. virtual network function B. virtual network appliance C. network virtualized element D. network cloud device What are the steps to configure a static route? (Choose two) A. Use the Media Access Control, or MAC, address of the next hop router B. Configure unidirectional static routes to and from a stub network C. Use the inbound interface of the local routers D. Define a path to the IP destination network https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/static-routing.html Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario? A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link. B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames. C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear. D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/trunk-operations.html

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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