Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Which switch ”show” command is used to check the software and hardware configuration information of the system? A. show version B. show interfaces C. show running-config https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html You are creating a number IPv4 extended ACL. What is the valid number range you can use? A. 1100-1199 B. 100-199 C. 200-299 D. 1-99 E. 700-799 Which physical layer media are used today for connecting network devices (switches and routers) together in a LAN? (Choose two) A. Coaxial B. Twisted copper pair C. Fiber optic D. Wireless Which is the Hello and Dead interval with a Gigabit Ethernet connection for a BROADCAST Network type with IPv6 by default? A. Hello 60, Dead 120 B. Hello 10, Dead 40 C. Hello 40, Dead 10 D. Hello 20, Dead 120 __________ means that the QoS tool changes one or more header fields, setting a value in the header. A. Marking B. Classifying C. Insertion D. Qualifying The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of Secure-shutdown. Which of the following answer must be true about this interface at this time? A. The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. B. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. C. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. D. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10. Wired Ethernet and Wi-Fi are based on which two IEEE standards, respectively? A. 802.1, 802.3 B. 802.1, 802.3 C. 802.3, 802.11 D. 802.11, 802.3 Which of the following behaviors are applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch? (Choose two) A. Shaping B. Policing C. Priority scheduling D. Round-robin scheduling You have a network address of 172.16.0.0/22, which equals a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. Determine the block size of this subnet. A. 6 B. 8 C. 2 D. 16 E. 4 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html Network device addresses use binary system to define their location on the network. How do the decimal and binary number systems work? (Choose three) A. Mathematics is based on the binary system B. Computers are based on the decimal system C. When performing powers of 2 calculations, the least significant bit is equal to 2^1 D. In the decimal system, the digits are 0,1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 E. Powers of 2 provide the basis for binary values F. The binary system uses only the digits 0 and 1 You are configuring dynamic NAT on your Cisco IOS router. Which command is used to verify the interfaces that are being used as the outside interface and the inside interface? A. show interfaces B. show ip route C. show ip nat translations D. show ip interface brief E. show ip interface F. show ip nat statistics Which of the following are required attributes of a REST-based API? (Choose two) A. Uses HTTP B. Objects noted as to whether they can be cached C. Classful operation D. Client/server architecture Which cloud service model provides access to an application that is built, monitored, and offered by the cloud provider? A. TaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. SaaS What are the considerations when operating in the VTP transparent mode? (Choose two) A. Changes are automatically saved to the vlan.dat file B. The configuration revision number will always be zero C. No manual changes are allowed to VLAN information D. Anytime you make a change to VLAN information, you should copy the running configuration to the startup configuration You have implemented DAI on a Layer 2 switch in your network. Now you want to monitor the ARP message rates with an average of four received ARP messages a second. Which command(s) would need to be utilized to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. ip arp inspection limit rate 8 burst interval 2 B. ip arp inspection limit rate 4 burst interval 2 C. ip arp inspection limit rate 10 burst interval 5 D. ip arp inspection limit rate 20 burst interval 5 You are configuring HSRP for VLAN 10. You want its primary default gateway to be R1 and secondary default gateway be R2. What should you consider when configuring HSRP for R1? (Choose two) A. Ensure that you use the same group number for all your configuration commands B. Ensure that pre-emption is disabled C. To ensure R1 always has priority, use the IP address of the physical interface of R1 for the virtual IP address D. Ensure that you specify R2 has a lower priority than R1 Which of the following is valid for Multi-area OSPF design type? (Choose two) A. Using summarization results in smaller routing tables B. A better solution for efficient routing C. Every router is required to process many link-state advertisements (LSAs) D. Larger routing tables are required https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/multiarea-ospf-planning.html Which of the following describes the PVST+ protocol? A. Assumes one 802.1D spanning tree for the entire bridged network B. Provides a separate 802.1D spanning tree for each virtual LAN, or VLAN, configured C. Provides fast conversion with a single instance of STP D. Provides fast conversion with an instance of spanning tree per VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Which IOS command always displays OSPF hello timer settings? A. show ip protocols B. show ip route C. show ip ospf interface D. show ip ospf neighbor E. debug ip ospf events How many subnets are created from a Class C addressing space that is using a /29 subnet mask? A. 16 B. 128 C. 64 D. 32 E. 8 F. 4 A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two) A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. D. The switch discards both the first and second frame. What is the default inactivity timer in minutes for the Console port on a Cisco IOS 2900 ISR? A. 20 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 E. 3 F. 1 G. 7 Your router has just received a packet that is destined to 10.1.1.97. Which entry in the routing table will be used to forward the packet? A. 10.1.1.0/25 B. 10.1.1.64/27 C. 0.0.0.0/0 D. 10.1.1.64/26 E. 10.1.1.32/27 F. 10.1.1.0/24 G. 10.1.1.80/28 A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two) A. Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. B. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. C. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, and will save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config D. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, but will not save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port? A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port. B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port. C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex. D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex. E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-1-internetworking/ethernet-networking.html You are troubleshooting the components involved in IPv6 end-to-end connectivity on a Mac computer. Please select the command you will use to check whether the Mac has the default IPv6 gateway set. A. show ipv6 interface B. show ipv6 route C. show ipv6 access-list D. ping E. ipconfig F. ifconfig https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-ipv6-connectivity.html You have configured your PC with multiple default gateways. R1 is the primary default gateway. R2 is the secondary default gateway. What is the best action to ensure redundancy of the default gateway if R1 goes down? A. Create an entry in the R1 routing table to route traffic to R2 B. Manually change the primary default gateway from R1 to R2 C. Ensure that you are using a First Hop Redundancy Protocol D. Nothing, as multiple gateways have been configured By default, what is the status of a Cisco IOS ISR interface? A. administratively down, down B. down, down C. up, up D. up, down Connections can be verified using a variety of troubleshooting commands. Which of the following commands is used to display incoming and outgoing connections? A. netstat B. tracert C. ping D. nslookup https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html You can use the Cisco IOS ”copy” command to move configurations from one component or device to another. Which of the following commands will delete the configuration in the NVRAM? A. erase startup-config B. copy tftp running-config C. copy running-config tftp D. copy running-config startup-config https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/network-environment-management/managing-devices.html In what security zone are the public web servers located? A. DMZ B. Inside C. Outside D. Campus Which of the following attributes do QoS tools manage? (Choose three) A. Bandwidth B. Delay C. Load D. MTU E. Loss The Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards? A. WEP B. WPA2 C. 802.11 D. AES Which is true in a spine-leaf architecture? (Choose two) A. Each leaf switch must connect to every spine switch. B. Each leaf switch must connect to one spine switch. C. Each spine switch must connect to every leaf switch. D. Each spine switch must connect to one leaf switch. Which code represents a route inside an area in which it belongs? A. IS - ISIS Interarea B. OI - OSPF Inter C. DCE - Destination D. O - OSPF Intra Regarding lightweight AP modes, which one of the following is true? A. An AP can operate in multiple modes at the same time. B. An AP only has one possible mode of operation. C. The Run mode is the default mode. D. The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis. Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem? A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs. B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN. C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk. D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches. E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches. You are tasked with configuring a switch so that it can be accessed remotely. What do you need to configure in order to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. The interface range in use B. A hostname for the switch C. An IP address and subnet mask D. A default gateway https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller? A. A Northbound Interface B. A Southbound Interface C. Data plane functions D. Control plane functions Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 What statements reflect the types of routers in an OSPF area structure? (Choose two) A. An autonomous system boundary router, or ASBR, connects any OSPF area to a different routing administration B. Routers that make up Area 0 are known as backbone routers C. An internal router connects Area 0 to the non-backbone areas D. Routers that make up non-backbone areas, with all interfaces in one area only, are known as area border routers, or ABRs https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/an-overview-of-ospf/ospf-data-overview.html Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 What is the election of a designated port for a segment based on? A. The lowest BID B. The lowest root path cost C. The lowest MAC address D. The lowest priority Which cloud service is owned and operated by a third party and allows people from a variety of different companies to request and use its resources? A. Hybrid cloud B. Internet cloud C. Private cloud D. Public cloud The configuration register on your Cisco IOS 2900 series router is set to 0x2101. How will the router choose the IOS image during the boot process? A. The last image located in flash will be booted B. The first image located in flash will be booted C. The image listed in the boot system command will be booted D. The image located on a TFTP server will be booted An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data private while also providing good QoS services? (Choose two) A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? (Choose two) A. IS-IS B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. BGP E. RIP Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached? A. VLANs have not been created yet. B. An IP address must be configured for the port. C. The port is currently configured for access mode. D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured. E. The "no shutdown" command has not been entered for the port. During a maintenance window, you make some changes to R2. You document these changes in your configuration management system. Later that night, you are called in to fix an issue that requires you to make additional changes to R2. The next morning your co-worker addresses another issue but this time on R1. All of these changes are documented properly but neither you or nor your coworker discuss the changes. These changes stay implemented for months. What is this best described as? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring Which statements describe a trunk operation? (Choose two) A. It carries traffic for a single virtual LAN, or VLAN B. It's the link between an Ethernet switch interface and a router C. Cisco supports the 802.1 Q trunking protocol D. It excludes traffic from the native VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/trunk-operations.html Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco TelePresence video network? (Choose two) A. One-way delay < 200 ms B. Round-trip delay < 200 ms C. Loss < 5% D. Loss < 0.05% E. Jitter < 100 ms F. Jitter < 50 ms You can use output filters in combination with any show command. Which of the following displays the output lines from a specific point, starting with the line that matches the filtering expression? A. include B. exclude C. begin D. section https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/starting-a-router.html Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Lightweight AP C. Wireless controller D. Wireless router

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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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