Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
enable secret [password] is hashed using the _______ algorithm. A. MD5 B. AH C. PSK D. ESP E. WPA2 Identify the features of UDP. (Choose two) A. Connection oriented B. Best effort C. Supports applications such as Secure Shell, or SSH, FTP, and DNS D. Data recovery E. Limited error checking https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/tcpip-transport-layer.html Which of the following describes a dynamic NAT configuration? A. Manually configured, one-to-one address mapping B. Automatically assigned from an address pool, many-to-many address mapping C. Many-to-one address mapping https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/address-translation.html Which RFC defines the private IPv4 address ranges? A. 2784 B. 4443 C. 1985 D. 7868 E. 1918 F. 2328 G. 792 In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address? A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing. B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch. C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame. D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table. E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-3-lan-switching-spanning-tree-protocol/switching-process.html Which application(s) would Jitter and Delay not be a concern for the users experience? A. Online Gaming. B. VoIP. C. Web browsers. D. videoconferencing. What versions of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) were defined after the IEEE ratified the IEEE 802.11i security standard? (Choose two) A. WPA B. WPA2 C. WPA3 D. WPA0 Which command will assign a static global IPv6 address to an interface? A. ipv6 address 2001::12:1 B. ipv6 address fe80::12:1 C. ipv6 address 2001::12:1/64 global D. ipv6 address fe80::12:1 global E. ipv6 address fe80::12:1/64 F. ipv6 address 2001::12:1/64 Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password, rather than storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other? A. Using hashes is preferred because encrypted IOS passwords can be easily decrypted. B. Using hashes is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for encryption. C. Using encryption is preferred because it provides stronger password protection. D. Using encryption is preferred because of the large CPU effort required for hashes. What is the name of the protocol that is used by IEEE 802.1x devices to communicate with the authenticator and authentication server? A. EAP B. EAPoL C. RADIUS D. TACACS+ Which command is used to monitor and verify ACLs? A. show access-lists B. show port-security C. show running-config D. show ip interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/type-of-acls.html Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model? A. Cisco Open SDN Controller B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) D. None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane. Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses is used in DHCP assignment process before a host has a valid IP address? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS A Cisco Catalyst switch connects to what should be individual user PCs. Each port has the same port security configuration, configured as follows: interface range gigabitethernet 0/1 - 24 switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security mac-address sticky Which of the following answers describe the result of the port security configuration created with these commands? (Choose two) A. Prevents unknown devices with unknown MAC addresses from sending data through the switch ports. B. If a user connects a switch to the cable, prevents multiple devices from sending data through the port. C. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, and will save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config D. Will allow any one device to connect to each port, but will not save that device’s MAC address into the startup-config You have the Class B network 172.16.0.0/16 and want to create 16 subnets. What will the new subnet mask be for the 16 subnets? A. /18 B. /19 C. /21 D. /17 E. /22 F. /20 What is the default subnet mask for a Class B address? A. 255.255.255.255 B. 0.0.0.0 C. 255.255.0.0 D. 255.255.255.0 E. 255.0.0.0 Each virtual OS instance that exists on a server is referred to as a ___________ A. KVM B. VM C. CSR D. hypervisor Imagine you configured OSPFv2 in a small lab network. Which of the following answers list a condition that could keep the routers in your lab from learning all the routes to all the IPv4 routes in your small lab network? (Choose two) A. An ACL could be blocking router advertisements. B. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF area and with the same IPv4 subnet mask. C. Any physical layer problem that would prevent two neighboring routers from being able to ping each others IPv4 addresses in the subnet that exists between the two routers. D. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF process ID on the router ospf command. What are some perceived benefits of controller-based networks as compared to traditional networks? (Choose two) A. New operational models that allow for a single device to be instantiated with the entire network in mind B. The use of APIs to mass-configure network devices, allowing for more consistency and fewer errors C. The use of DevOps approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity D. The use of legacy approaches in the network to increase efficiency and productivity If EX is the code for EIGRP External Routes, then what is the code for EIGRP Internal Routes? A. IX B. L C. I D. D Which of the following behaviors is applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch? (Choose two) A. Congestion management B. Shaping C. Policing D. Priority scheduling E. Round robin scheduling What is the election of a designated port for a segment based on? A. The lowest BID B. The lowest root path cost C. The lowest MAC address D. The lowest priority Which of the following describes a Global IPv6 address? A. ::1 B. Starts with FE80::/10 C. Represented by :: D. Starts with 2000::/3 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html Of the different public cloud WAN options, which have quality of service capabilities to ensure end-to-end application requirements? (Choose three) A. Internet B. Intercloud exchange C. Ethernet WAN D. MPLS VPN E. Internet VPN Which of the following subnet masks are classless? (Choose two) A. 255.255.0.0 B. 255.0.0.0 C. 255.255.192.0 D. 255.255.255.240 E. 255.255.255.0 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities? A. The address of the attacker B. The address of the reflector C. The address of the victim D. The address of the router You have a Class C address with a subnet mask of /28. How many bits were borrowed from the host portion of the address? A. Six B. One C. Four D. Two E. Three F. Five How many subnets are created from a Class C addressing space that is using a /29 subnet mask? A. 16 B. 128 C. 64 D. 32 E. 8 F. 4 What is the correct sequence of the following data de-encapsulation steps in the order that they occur? 1. Layer 2 control information in the header is read and interpreted. 2. The trailer, frame check sequence, or FCS, is checked to see whether errors exist in the data. 3. The remaining data is passed to the next layer with its layer 2 header and trailer stripped. A. 1, 2, 3 B. 3, 2, 1 C. 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 3, 1 E. 3, 1, 2 You need to create a wildcard mask for the entire Class B private IPv4 address space; 172.16.0.0/16 through 172.31.0.0/16. What is the wildcard mask? A. 0.0.15.255 B. 0.15.255.255 C. 0.0.31.255 D. 0.31.255.255 E. 0.0.7.255 F. 0.7.255.255 Identify the characteristics of standards-based communication models. (Choose two) A. Current multivendor solutions communication models employ a layered approach B. The most current host-to-host communication models are proprietary, making the technology available to the public C. TCP/IP and OSI models are examples of open multivendor solutions D. Within a layered model, a single vendor provides solutions for each of the layers https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html Which actions must be performed to implement SNMP access to the router? (Choose two) A. Configure a community access string with a read-write privileged to permit access to SNMP B. Authenticate access to MIB objects and functions as embedded passwords C. Set the system contact and location of the SNMP agent on the router D. Obtain values for the 5 minute exponentially moving average of the CPU busy percentage https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/network-management/snmp-v1-v2c-v3-overview-and-configuration.html Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP When planning a greenfield SDA design, what traditional LAN design points should be included? (Choose two) A. The number of switchports needed in each switch B. The required speed of the switchports C. A security firewall to properly segment traffic D. The Spanning Tree mode of operation to use Which of the following describes an Unspecified IPv6 address? A. ::1 B. Starts with FE80::/10 C. Represented by :: D. Starts with 2000::/3 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/ipv6-unicast-addresses.html Which of the following are available methods of classifying packets in DiffServ on Cisco routers? (Choose three) A. Matching the IP DSCP field B. Matching the 802.1p CoS field C. Matching fields with an extended IP ACL D. Matching the SNMP Location variable The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of Secure-shutdown. Which of the following answer must be true about this interface at this time? A. The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. B. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. C. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. D. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10. Which of the following components of a network is responsible for interconnecting networks and choosing the best path between networks? A. Endpoints B. Routers C. Interconnections D. Switches https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/the-functions-of-networking.html Which protocol provides encryption only? A. TLS VPN B. GRE VPN C. Connect VPN D. IPsec VPN Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 Which option can you choose for saving money while securing your WAN connections? A. Enterprise Managed VPN B. Service Provider VPN C. SSL VPN D. Access Control VPN An interface on your Catalyst switch is configured with BPDU Guard. The interface has received numerous BPDUs and is now listed as being down/down. You plan on eliminating the reason why the BPDUs were received on the port. In addition, you want the port to automatically recover from the down/down state after 30 seconds. Which feature can you enable to ensure that the port automatically recovers? A. IPSLA B. Root guard C. Loop guard D. UDLD E. Errdisable recovery What are the benefits of implementing IPv6? (Choose four) A. Transition richness B. Larger address space C. Simpler header D. Security and mobility E. Smaller address space F. Complex header A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two) A. The LLQ B. Queue 1 C. Queue 2 D. Queue 3 What are the considerations when operating in the VTP transparent mode? (Choose two) A. Changes are automatically saved to the vlan.dat file B. The configuration revision number will always be zero C. No manual changes are allowed to VLAN information D. Anytime you make a change to VLAN information, you should copy the running configuration to the startup configuration Command history is enabled by default. What actions can be completed using the command history feature? (Choose three) A. Commands previously stored in the history buffer can be recalled B. Notepad configurations can be saved to the buffer for future configurations C. Running configuration files can be saved to configure a second internetworking device D. The buffer size of the command history can be set E. The command buffer contents can be displayed https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-4-cisco-ios/command-line-interface.html What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 Which of the following four TCP/IP layers represents the core of the TCP/IP architecture? A. Network Access B. Transport C. Internet D. Application https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/host-to-host-communications.html How do packet forwarding and path determination function on a router? (Choose two) A. Routers must maintain a common routing table to ensure that other routers know about changes in the network B. The destination IP address in the packet defines the packet destination C. A router determines the source of the information using the first number in each line of the show ip route output D. The routing table holds only one entry per network Regarding lightweight AP modes, which one of the following is true? A. An AP can operate in multiple modes at the same time. B. An AP only has one possible mode of operation. C. The Run mode is the default mode. D. The SE-Connect mode is used for spectrum analysis. Which IOS command always displays OSPF hello timer settings? A. show ip protocols B. show ip route C. show ip ospf interface D. show ip ospf neighbor E. debug ip ospf events What command is used to verify ARP cache entries? A. show arp B. arp C. arp timeout D. show arp traffic

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

The Cisco CCNA 200-301 practice exam tests include questions to test your knowledge and skills related to Cisco networking fundamentals, which helps you pass the actual exam.

The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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