Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three) A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding. B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch. C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media. E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state. F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch. The Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards? A. WEP B. WPA2 C. 802.11 D. AES Which of the following is describing the Nonegotiate mode of Dynamic Trunking Protocol? A. Creates a trunk with the neighboring switch based on the DTP request B. Enables trunking on the interface C. Trunking cannot take place on the port regardless of DTP requests D. Sends a DTP communication that it wants to create a trunk with the neighboring switch E. DTP frames are prevented from being generated from the port https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/dynamic-trunking-protocol.html Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Lightweight AP C. Wireless controller D. Wireless router When no explicit path is found in the routing table to forward a packet, what optional entry can be used in the routing table to forward the packet? A. A directly connected route B. A default route C. A local route D. A static route E. A dynamic route Which of the following QoS marking fields could remain with a packet while being sent through four different routers, over different LAN and WAN links? (Choose two) A. CoS B. IPP C. DSCP D. MPLS EXP Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco voice network? (Choose two) A. Jitter < 30 ms B. Loss < 1% C. One-way delay < 200 ms D. Jitter < 50 ms E. Loss < 2% F. Round-trip delay < 200 ms Which command is used to set your Cisco IOS device as an authoritative time source that will be used as the trusted time source? A. ntp master B. ntp server C. ntp client D. ntp peer What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow You want to disable the negotiation of trunking for all FastEthernet ports. Which commands are required to do this? (Choose two) A. interface range FastEthernet 0/1-24 B. show vlan brief C. switchport access vlan 2 D. switchport mode access Which is true in a spine-leaf architecture? (Choose two) A. Each leaf switch must connect to every spine switch. B. Each leaf switch must connect to one spine switch. C. Each spine switch must connect to every leaf switch. D. Each spine switch must connect to one leaf switch. Which is the Hello and Dead interval with a Gigabit Ethernet connection for a BROADCAST Network type with IPv6 by default? A. Hello 60, Dead 120 B. Hello 10, Dead 40 C. Hello 40, Dead 10 D. Hello 20, Dead 120 Which command is used to disable CDP on an interface? A. no lldp enable B. no run C. no lldp run D. no cdp enable E. no enable F. no cdp run You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements? A. 10.188.31.0/26 B. 10.188.31.0/25 C. 10.188.31.0/28 D. 10.188.31.0/27 E. 10.188.31.0/29 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/variable-length-subnet-mask.html Which of the following use cases are matching the UTP Ethernet media type? A. Offers the highest bandwidths compared to the other forms of communication B. A four-pair wire with low cost and low signal degradation C. Acts as a wave guide to transmit light between the two ends https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/connecting-to-a-lan.html Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification Which of the following commands is used to enable a serial interface? A. no shutdown B. interface serial C. show controllers D. clockrate E. bandwidth https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/wan-technologies/serial-encapsulation.html You have configured one side of your EtherChannel as passive. What mode should you use on the other side? A. Desirable B. On C. Auto D. Active Historically, your organization has modified the network device configuration by logging in to the local devices manually. Today, your new CIO has enforced that all configuration changes should be completed on a server in the data center and then pushed out. Which answer lists the correct term for this new approach to configuration? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring You have a Class B addressing space with a subnet mask of /26. How many subnets were created from the original Class B addressing space? A. 4096 B. 2048 C. 128 D. 512 E. 1024 F. 256 Review the topology diagram. Network 10.123.0.0/24 is the backbone area. Network 10.12.0.0/24 is area 1, and network 10.34.0.0/29 is in area 2. Which of the following are true? (Choose three) A. R1 is a backbone router. B. R1 is an ABR. C. R1 is an internal router. D. R3 would see the OSPF network of 10.12.0.0/24 as an intra-area route. E. R1 and R3 would have the same LSA information about the backbone area. You are implementing a VLSM network. You are using the Class B network of 172.16.0.0/16 and need to create 256 networks from this. The fifth network will then be subnetted into /30 networks. What is the subnet ID of the fourth /30 network? A. 172.16.4.12/30 B. 172.16.4.4/30 C. 172.16.4.6/30 D. 172.16.4.8/30 E. 172.16.4.14/30 F. 172.16.4.10/30 What should be checked when troubleshooting IPv6 end-to-end connectivity? (Choose three) A. Incorrect default gateways B. Physical location of devices C. Physical connection issues D. Blocked traffic from ACLs Which option is not one of the most commonly deployed virtualization vendors and products? A. Oracle XenSpace B. Microsoft Hyper-V C. VMware vCenter D. Red Hat KVM Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco TelePresence video network? (Choose two) A. One-way delay < 200 ms B. Round-trip delay < 200 ms C. Loss < 5% D. Loss < 0.05% E. Jitter < 100 ms F. Jitter < 50 ms Looking at the exhibit, what key:value pair option has a value that is numeric in nature? A. ”upTime”: ”45 days, 13:36:14.80”, B. ”lastUpdated”: ”2019-10-29 02:52:00”, C. ”managementIpAddress”: ”10.230.1.1”, D. ”lastUpdateTime”: 1572317520439 You have a Class B IP address with a subnet mask of /22. How many bits were borrowed from the host portion of the address? A. Six B. Five C. Seven D. Nine E. Eight F. Four Review the topology. All subnets exist in OSPF area 0. Which command, if issued on R3, would show all the LSAs known by R3? A. Show running-config B. Show ip ospf interface C. Show ip ospf neighbors D. Show ip route ospf E. Show ip ospf database What command should you configure globally to enable a 15-minute recovery time for the port security errdisable state? A. errdisable recovery interval 15 B. errdisable recovery timer 15 C. errdisable recovery timer 900 D. errdisable recovery interval 900 Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached? A. VLANs have not been created yet. B. An IP address must be configured for the port. C. The port is currently configured for access mode. D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured. E. The "no shutdown" command has not been entered for the port. You have a Class C address with a subnet mask of /28. How many bits were borrowed from the host portion of the address? A. Six B. One C. Four D. Two E. Three F. Five R1, R2, R3, and R4 have their Fast Ethernet 0/0 interfaces attached to the same VLAN. A network engineer has typed a configuration for each router by using a word processor. He will later copy and paste the configuration into the routers. Examine the following exhibit, which lists configuration for the four routers, as typed by the network engineer. Assuming that all four routers can ping each other’s LAN IP addresses after the configuration has been applied, choose the routers that will be able to form a neighbor relationship with the other routers on the LAN. (You can assume that, if not shown in the exhibit, all other related parameters are still set to their defaults.) (Choose two) A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. None of the routers will exchange routing information. When comparing next-generation IPS to traditional IPS, what additional capabilities can be leveraged to more efficiently block traffic? (Choose three) A. AVC B. Signature-based filtering C. Contextual awareness D. Event impact level Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Wireless controller C. Lightweight AP D. Wireless router Which command stores passwords as an SHA-256 or MD5 hash? A. service password-encryption B. service password-encryption {sha256 \| md5} C. enable password {sha256 \| md5} D. enable hash-password E. None of the above. What statements reflect the types of routers in an OSPF area structure? (Choose two) A. An autonomous system boundary router, or ASBR, connects any OSPF area to a different routing administration B. Routers that make up Area 0 are known as backbone routers C. An internal router connects Area 0 to the non-backbone areas D. Routers that make up non-backbone areas, with all interfaces in one area only, are known as area border routers, or ABRs https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/an-overview-of-ospf/ospf-data-overview.html What can you verify on a Cisco IOS ISR with the ”show ip interface” command? (Choose five) A. The number of packets input and output on the interface B. The IP address and subnet mask of the interface C. The name or number of an ACL that is applied to the interface D. Whether the router is a DHCP relay agent E. The MAC address of the interface F. The method used to assign the IP address to the interface G. The status and protocol status of the interface Which command can be used to prevent syslog messages from interrupting the commands that you are currently typing in? A. no login B. enable secret C. no exec D. transport input telnet E. service password-encryption F. logging synchronous G. exec-timeout All of the switches in your VTP domain are operating as servers. Which command changes the operation mode of DSW2 to client? A. vlan client B. show vlan brief C. vtp password client D. vtp mode client An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead? A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN How can be secured a console access to a network device? A. Encrypt the console password B. Define RSA keys to be used in authentication C. Generate a certificate key https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/cisco-router-security.html What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis Per the command output, with how many routers is router R9 full adjacent over its Gi0/0 interface? A. 7 B. 10 C. 5 D. 2 Which statement describes how to create VLANs? A. Use the [vian interface] command B. Use the [vlan] global configuration command C. Use the [switchport vlan name] command https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/vlan-operations.html Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS What are considerations when troubleshooting ACL issues? (Choose two) A. They use top-down processing with immediate execution upon a match B. They use bottom-up processing with immediate execution upon a match C. If you don't match anything in the ACL, there is an implicit denial at the end D. Outbound ACLs affect the dynamic routing protocol Which statements are true about telnet and ssh? (Choose two) A. Only data traffic is encrypted with ssh B. All telnet traffic is sent in plain text C. All ssh traffic is encrypted D. The data is hashed by telnet during transmission E. The username and password is hashed by telnet during authentication F. Only authentication traffic is encrypted with ssh Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B You are configuring your Cisco IOS Router. You need to setup a password to control access to privileged EXEC mode. Which commands can you use to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. hostname B. privilege C. enable secret D. enable password E. password Refer to the diagram. What is the official name of the network (Network A) that is broadcast by an AP? A. SSID B. BSS C. ESS D. SRDID Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20. B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol. C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580. D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated. The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of Secure-shutdown. Which of the following answer must be true about this interface at this time? A. The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. B. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. C. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. D. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10. Which end-to-end connectivity troubleshooting tool allows the observation of the path between two hosts? A. Ping B. Telnet C. Address Resolution Protocol, or ARP D. Traceroute https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-connectivity.html By default, no password is required to connect to the console port. Which commands are required to enable local line authentication for the console port? (Choose two) A. enable B. exec-timeout C. privilege D. login E. secret F. password Which of the following statements are valid for a broadcast domain? (Choose two) A. The network portion of an IP address connecting two devices cannot be reused again within the routing domain B. Devices that connect over the same LAN must share the same IP address network portion C. Devices on the same VLAN - also known as virtual LAN - or wireless network require separate subnets D. Devices separated by a router need to be on the same common subnet https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/challenges-of-shared-lans.html

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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