Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Which public cloud WAN connection options do not offer the ability to have reliable QoS? (Choose two) A. Internet B. Internet VPN C. MPLS VPN D. Ethernet VPN E. Intercloud Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B Which spanning-tree standard improves convergence over 1998 STP by adding roles to ports and enhancing BPDU exchanges? A. IEEE 802.1D B. 802.1s (MSTP) C. Rapid PVST+ D. 802.1w (RSTP) E. PVST+ What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch? A. It creates a VLAN 999 interface. B. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic. C. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk. D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html What is the name of the protocol that has been developed by the ONF that is used to communicate between an SDN controller and the network devices it controls? A. OpFlex B. OpenSDN C. SbControl D. OpenFlow Identify the true statements about VLANs and trunking with IEEE 802.1Q. (Choose three) A. The native VLAN should be changed from the default for security B. The layer 2 header must be adjusted to keep track of VLAN origins C. All VLANs have a tag D. Inter Switch Link and IEEE 802.1 Q are trunking protocols E. Access ports carry traffic for multiple VLANs https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html You are looking at the MAC address 00:00:0c:43:2e:08. Which hexadecimal values in the MAC address represent the vendor-assigned portion of the MAC address? A. 43:2e:08 B. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 C. 2e:08 D. c:43:2e:08 E. 00:0c:43:2e:08 F. 0c:43:2e:08 You need to verify which interfaces have been enabled for port security and the security action that will be taken if a violation occurs. Which show command will provide this information? A. show interfaces B. show port-security interface C. show port-security address D. show port-security E. show ip interface F. show ip interface brief What is the default subnet mask for a Class B address? A. 255.255.255.255 B. 0.0.0.0 C. 255.255.0.0 D. 255.255.255.0 E. 255.0.0.0 What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame? A. source MAC address B. source IP address C. source switch port D. destination IP address E. destination port address F. destination MAC address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/packet-delivery-process.html You are upgrading the Cisco IOS on your Catalyst switch. While browsing the available downloads on Cisco's website, you notice that you need the model of the switch to obtain the correct IOS. Which command can you issue on your IOS switch to identify the model? A. show running-config B. show flash C. show startup-config D. show platform nvram E. show version F. show processes An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco TelePresence video network? (Choose two) A. One-way delay < 200 ms B. Round-trip delay < 200 ms C. Loss < 5% D. Loss < 0.05% E. Jitter < 100 ms F. Jitter < 50 ms Which state of the default STP configuration allows ports to listen for BPDUs but not send any? A. Listening B. Learning C. Blocking D. Forwarding Which QoS feature is typically used outbound to an ISP to reduce the amount of traffic that is dropped by exceeding the purchased rate? A. Traffic shaping B. Traffic policing C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic classification Which statements correctly identify the prompts for user and privileged EXEC modes? (Choose two) A. hostname# - user EXEC B. hostname> - user EXEC C. hostname# - privileged EXEC D. hostname> - privileged EXEC https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-4-cisco-ios/command-line-interface.html Which statements correctly define ACLs? (Choose two) A. They can only be used on routers B. They are used as a classification tool C. They identify traffic based on the application data D. They are made up of various permit and deny entries What are the possible consequences of an STP failure? (Choose two) A. Only the users that are directly connected to the switch will be affected B. Every port will transition to a blocking state C. The load on all links in the switched LAN quickly starts increasing D. Due to very high load for the CPU, the switch becomes unreachable enable secret [password] is hashed using the _______ algorithm. A. MD5 B. AH C. PSK D. ESP E. WPA2 When using the “show etherchannel summary“ command, what does the “u“ flag signify? A. Waiting to be aggregated B. Suspended C. In use D. Unsuitable for bundling R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in? A. Traffic classification B. Traffic shaping C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic policing Which cloud service model provides access to an application that is built, monitored, and offered by the cloud provider? A. TaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. SaaS During root port election, what happens when the BPDUs with a lower root unique identifier value than its own bridge ID, are being received on multiple ports? A. The switch elects the port that has the lowest-cost path to the root as its root port B. The switch elects multiple root ports simultaneously C. The switch elects the port that is closest to the root bridge D. The switch elects the port that is receiving the BPDUs with the highest BID https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/performance-with-spanning-tree.html Which statements describe the characteristics of port security? (Choose two) A. Sticky learning adds dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration B. Ports configured with port security only accept frames from addresses that have been learned or the ones that have been configured C. Addresses must be manually added to the switch D. It restricts port access using IP addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/switch-security.html Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 Four OSPF routers connect to the same LAN. In a new election after all routers have been rebooted, which router wins the DR election? A. R4, router-id 4.4.4.4, priority 1 B. R3, router-id 3.3.3.3, priority 2 C. R1, router-id 1.1.1.1, priority 4 D. R2, router-id 2.2.2.2, priority 3 Which port on a Cisco IOS ISR is used for initial management connectivity? A. Ethernet B. USB C. ADSL D. Console E. Aux F. Serial When comparing next-generation IPS to traditional IPS, what additional capabilities can be leveraged to more efficiently block traffic? (Choose three) A. AVC B. Signature-based filtering C. Contextual awareness D. Event impact level Which command is used to ensure that a switch interface will never become a trunk and remain a member of a single VLAN? A. Switchport mode trunk B. Switchport mode access C. Switchport nonegotiate D. Switchport access vlan vlan-number E. Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q What would the following access list entry accomplish when configuring your router? permit tcp host 192.0.0.130 host 192.0.0.227 eq 80 (Choose two) A. Without any other statements, all other hosts would be denied access to 192.0.0.277 B. It permits traffic from 192.0.0.130 to access 192.0.0.277 using anything but HTTP C. It permits traffic from 192.0.0.130 to access 192.0.0.277 using FTP D. It permits traffic from 192.0.0.130 to access 192.0.0.277 using HTTP Which cloud service is specific to one company that owns both the tools/infrastructure that creates the cloud and the people that use the services? A. Hybrid cloud B. Public cloud C. Private cloud D. Internal cloud What is required for a directly connected route to be added to the routing table? (Choose two) A. The network command must be issued under the routing process B. BGP must be running on the router C. A local route must be manually created D. The IP route command must be configured in global configuration mode E. Configure an IP address on the interface F. The interface Status must be up and the Protocol must be up Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 You are troubleshooting the components involved in IPv6 end-to-end connectivity on a Mac computer. Please select the command you will use to check whether the Mac has the default IPv6 gateway set. A. show ipv6 interface B. show ipv6 route C. show ipv6 access-list D. ping E. ipconfig F. ifconfig https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-ipv6-connectivity.html What protocols exist to negotiate EtherChannel creation and maintenance? (Choose two) A. LACP B. VTP C. PAgP D. STP A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two) A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. D. The switch discards both the first and second frame. You need to create a standard IPv4 ACL entry that will deny all packets sourced from the Class C private IP address space. Which of these options is the correct ACL entry? A. access-list 10 deny 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 B. access-list 10 deny any C. access-list 10 deny 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 D. access-list 10 deny 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 E. access-list 10 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 F. access-list 10 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.255 G. access-list 10 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 Which of the following describes the RSTP protocol? A. Assumes one 802.1D spanning tree for the entire bridged network B. Provides a separate 802.1D spanning tree for each virtual LAN, or VLAN, configured C. Provides fast conversion with a single instance of STP D. Provides fast conversion with an instance of spanning tree per VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Which command is used to enable port security on an interface? A. switchport port-security violation mode B. switchport port-security C. switchport access vlan vlan-number D. switchport mode access E. switchport port-security maximum number F. switchport port-security mac-address mac_address You are currently building a network diagram. You need to add the model number of the local device you are connected to in the diagram. Which command will provide you with the model number of the local Cisco IOS device? A. show cdp neighbors detail B. show cdp C. show interfaces D. show cdp neighbors E. show version F. show ip interface brief You want to create a VLAN called Marketing. What is the first step you should take? A. Assign a port to the VLAN B. Assign the VLAN parameters C. Specify the VLAN name D. Specify the VLAN ID https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html You are configuring port security on a Catalyst IOS switch. You need to choose a violation mode that will deny frames that are in violation of the port security settings while still allowing frames that are not in violation. In addition, syslog messages need to be generated and the port security violation counter must increase each time a violation occurs. Which port security violation mode should you choose? A. Err-disable B. Protect C. Shutdown D. Disable E. Restrict Refer to the diagram. What method of authentication is being used? A. Open authentication B. CCMP C. WEP D. 802.1x Which statements describe the benefits of using a variable-length subnet mask? (Choose two) A. It provides a better-defined network hierarchy within an address plan B. It ensures that only a single subnet mask within an entire Class is used C. It enables more efficient use of IP addresses D. It prevents aggregation of network addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/variable-length-subnet-mask.html Which command could you enter to encrypt passwords? A. enable secret B. username {username} secret {password} C. service password-encryption D. All of the above E. None of the above Refer to the diagram. What is the name of the device referenced with the arrow, assuming the traffic coming from the wireless clients followed the dashed path? A. Autonomous AP B. Wireless controller C. Lightweight AP D. Wireless router Looking at the exhibit, what key:value pair option has a value that is numeric in nature? A. ”upTime”: ”45 days, 13:36:14.80”, B. ”lastUpdated”: ”2019-10-29 02:52:00”, C. ”managementIpAddress”: ”10.230.1.1”, D. ”lastUpdateTime”: 1572317520439 Suppose two APs are located near each other. Which channel use strategy will result in nonoverlapping channels for Wi-Fi use? (Choose two) A. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and channel 2 on AP-B. B. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and 5-GHz channel 48 on AP-B. C. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 40 on AP-B. D. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 37 on AP-B. In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch? (Choose two) A. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1. B. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5. C. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards. D. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses. E. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link. F. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled. Why should you implement port security on a switch interface? A. To control which devices are allowed to access the network B. To prevent Layer 2 loops from occurring C. To prevent a unidirectional link D. To prevent MAC address flooding attacks E. To control which devices are allowed to manage the switch Robust wireless encryption is based on which of the following algorithms? A. WEP B. AES C. DES D. IPsec Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications? A. IaaS B. PaaS C. SaaS D. SLBaaS

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Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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