Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Which of the following are the three considerations for a WAN connection? (Choose three) A. Dedicated B. Switched C. Internet D. Core E. Distribution F. Intranet Which of the following reserved IPv4 addresses typically uses the IP address 127.0.0.1? A. Local broadcast address B. Loopback address C. Directed broadcast address D. Network address E. All zeros address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-2-ip-addressing-and-subnetting-nat/network-addressing.html What are the valid encapsulation methods when forcing a device to become a trunk port? (Choose three) A. private-vlan B. dot1q-tunnel C. dot1q D. negotiate E. isl Which statement is true about the addresses 172.16.0.255/23 and 172.16.1.0/23? A. The address 172.16.0.255/23 is a directed broadcast address B. The addresses are in different subnets C. The address 172.16.1.0/23 is a subnet ID D. The addresses are in the same subnet Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why? A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two) A. The LLQ B. Queue 1 C. Queue 2 D. Queue 3 Which command is used to import a static default route into the RIP routing process and have it advertised to other neighboring RIP routers? A. default-information originate B. redistribute static C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 next-hop_ip D. network 0.0.0.0 Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two) A. 802.1d B. VTP C. 802.1q D. STP E. SAP https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html Within a deny statement for an IPv6 ACL, what are the possible values for the prefix? (Choose two) A. Source or destination IPv6 host address B. Wildcard for the source C. Any prefix as an abbreviation for the IPv6 prefix ::/0 D. Name or number of an Internet protocol An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean? A. R1 is an Area Border Router. B. R1 is a backup designated router. C. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router. D. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router. Which of the following parameters are necessary when creating a new WLAN with the controller GUI? (Choose two) A. SSID B. VLAN number C. Interface D. BSSID E. IP subnet What is the purpose of the “service password-encryption“ command? A. It encrypts all passwords on your router. B. It encrypts the line console password only. C. It encrypts the vty password only. D. It is not a valid cisco command Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP When planning a greenfield SDA design, what traditional LAN design points should be included? (Choose two) A. The number of switchports needed in each switch B. The required speed of the switchports C. A security firewall to properly segment traffic D. The Spanning Tree mode of operation to use Which DSCP Assured Forwarding value provides the worst drop and worst queue performance? A. AF41 B. AF43 C. AF11 D. AF13 Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B Which physical layer media are used today for connecting network devices (switches and routers) together in a LAN? (Choose two) A. Coaxial B. Twisted copper pair C. Fiber optic D. Wireless You are configuring HSRP for VLAN 10. You want its primary default gateway to be R1 and secondary default gateway be R2. What should you consider when configuring HSRP for R1? (Choose two) A. Ensure that you use the same group number for all your configuration commands B. Ensure that pre-emption is disabled C. To ensure R1 always has priority, use the IP address of the physical interface of R1 for the virtual IP address D. Ensure that you specify R2 has a lower priority than R1 Imagine you configured OSPFv2 in a small lab network. Which of the following answers list a condition that could keep the routers in your lab from learning all the routes to all the IPv4 routes in your small lab network? (Choose two) A. An ACL could be blocking router advertisements. B. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF area and with the same IPv4 subnet mask. C. Any physical layer problem that would prevent two neighboring routers from being able to ping each others IPv4 addresses in the subnet that exists between the two routers. D. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF process ID on the router ospf command. Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco voice network? (Choose two) A. Jitter < 30 ms B. Loss < 1% C. One-way delay < 200 ms D. Jitter < 50 ms E. Loss < 2% F. Round-trip delay < 200 ms A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two) A. The switch puts the interface into an err-disabled state when the first frame arrives. B. The switch generates syslog messages about the violating traffic for the first frame. C. The switch increments the violation counter for Gi0/1 by 1. D. The switch discards both the first and second frame. Which cloud service is specific to one company that owns both the tools/infrastructure that creates the cloud and the people that use the services? A. Hybrid cloud B. Public cloud C. Private cloud D. Internal cloud Which is the customer side of the demarcation point? A. PE B. CSU C. P D. CTE E. DSU F. CPE Four OSPF routers connect to the same LAN. In a new election after all routers have been rebooted, which router wins the DR election? A. R4, router-id 4.4.4.4, priority 1 B. R3, router-id 3.3.3.3, priority 2 C. R1, router-id 1.1.1.1, priority 4 D. R2, router-id 2.2.2.2, priority 3 Consider the following scenario: Host A has IP address 192.168.6.3 and MAC address 0800:0111:3333. Host B has IP address 192.168.7.3 and MAC address 0800:0222:4444. The router has IP address 192.168.7.1 and MAC address 0800:0444:1111. When Host B receives a packet from Host A, the frame contains the source and destination IP and MAC addresses. What should be the destination MAC address? A. 0800:0444:1111 B. 192.168.7.3 C. 192.168.6.3 D. 0800:0222:4444 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/packet-delivery-process-at-l3.html Identify the true statements about layer 2 addressing. (Choose two) A. It is used to identify Ethernet router interfaces on the LAN B. Each PC and each router interface has its own unique Medium Access Control, or MAC, address C. Identifiers that enable intermediary network devices to locate hosts on different networks are included D. Ethernet uses IP addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/ethernet-protocol.html What can VLANs be used for? (Choose two) A. To maximize device resources B. To segment a physical switch into logical broadcast domains C. To prevent specific protocols from entering your network D. To eliminate the need for routers What are the characteristics of a VLAN? (Choose two) A. It allows you to segment users by function as long as they are in the same LAN segment B. It offers segmentation of broadcast domains C. It replaces the use of broadcast domains in your network D. It allows you to logically segment a network Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem? A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs. B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN. C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk. D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches. E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches. You are troubleshooting the components involved in IPv6 end-to-end connectivity on a Mac computer. Please select the command you will use to check IPv6 static name resolution. A. show ipv6 interface B. show ipv6 route C. show ipv6 access-list D. ping E. ipconfig F. ifconfig https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/path-selection-dns-and-acl-issues-in-ipv6.html Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 Examine the output provided. What statements are accurate about the configuration of OSPFv3? (Choose two) A. The [ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id] command enables OSPFv3 on an interface B. The [router-id router_id] command statically configures a name for the router within the OSPFv3 process C. The [ipv6 router ospf process-id] command assigns OSPF to a specific area D. 10.10.10.10 is the address of the interface participating in OSPFv3 routing From the following options, what are the required REST API attributes? (Choose two) A. JSON-formatted data B. Unlayered systems C. Layered systems D. Client-server architecture Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning? A. Setting the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses on the interface with the switchport port-security maximum interface subcommand B. Enabling port security with the switchport port-security interface subcommand C. Defining the specific allowed MAC addresses using the switchport port-security mac-address interface subcommand D. All the other answers list required commands Which of the following describes the Rapid PVST+ protocol? A. Assumes one 802.1D spanning tree for the entire bridged network B. Provides a separate 802.1D spanning tree for each virtual LAN, or VLAN, configured C. Provides fast conversion with a single instance of STP D. Provides fast conversion with an instance of spanning tree per VLAN https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/stp-protocol-types.html It is typical for server processors to utilize a technique that allows each physical processing core to be split into a number of virtual cores; this is commonly referred to as __________. A. processor virtualization B. multi-threading C. virtual processing D. processor switching What does 15.2(4)M1 represent in the following IOS image filename: c2900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M1.bin? A. The platform B. The version number C. The feature set D. The file extension https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/network-management/managing-cisco-ios-image-files.html Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices? A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable. B. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk C. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1 D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20 Network device addresses use binary system to define their location on the network. How do the decimal and binary number systems work? (Choose three) A. Mathematics is based on the binary system B. Computers are based on the decimal system C. When performing powers of 2 calculations, the least significant bit is equal to 2^1 D. In the decimal system, the digits are 0,1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 E. Powers of 2 provide the basis for binary values F. The binary system uses only the digits 0 and 1 An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data private while also providing good QoS services? (Choose two) A. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider B. Using an Internet connection without VPN C. Using an intercloud exchange D. Using an Internet connection with VPN Which options are not one of the manageable QoS characteristics of network traffic? (Choose two) A. Delay B. Jitter C. Queue size D. Clock rate E. Bandwidth F. Loss What is the benefit of using named IPv4 ACLs over numbered IPv4 ACLs? A. You can permit or deny traffic B. You can create extended ACLs C. There is an implicit deny all entry in every ACL D. You can add, delete, and modify entries in a named ACL E. They have sequence numbers Which command stores passwords as an SHA-256 or MD5 hash? A. service password-encryption B. service password-encryption {sha256 \| md5} C. enable password {sha256 \| md5} D. enable hash-password E. None of the above. You are troubleshooting a connectivity issue on the Branch router when you realize that a ping test to the destination network is not successful. The Branch and corresponding HQ router have their neighbor adjacency set up. What could be the problem? (Choose two) A. The HQ router isn't advertising the route B. There is an OSPF area mismatch C. The HQ router is not enabled for OSPF D. There is a route missing to the destination in the Branch router`s routing table E. Layer 2 connectivity is not established between the two routers https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/troubleshooting-connectivity.html You are configuring static NAT on a Cisco IOS router that is connected to your ISP. You goal is to have the private IP of 10.1.1.10 translated to 203.0.113.5. Which command must be issued on the interface connected to the service provider? A. ip nat pool NAT_POOL 203.0.113.5 B. ip nat inside C. ip nat outside D. ip nat inside source static 10.1.1.10 203.0.113.5 The Wi-Fi Alliance offers which of the following certifications for wireless devices that correctly implement security standards? A. WEP B. WPA2 C. 802.11 D. AES What is the best method of ensuring that your preferred switch is the root bridge? A. Allow the devices to always elect the best path without any special configuration B. Manually set the priority of each switch in your topology C. Manually set the IP configuration of the switches to modify the priority of each switch D. Use the default configuration and built-in macros Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller? A. A Northbound Interface B. A Southbound Interface C. Data plane functions D. Control plane functions Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes? A. 10.0.0.0 /21 B. 10.0.0.0 /22 C. 10.0.0.0 /23 D. 10.0.0.0 /24 Which shorthand notations can be applied to IPv6 addresses? (Choose three) A. An unspecified address is written as a double colon followed by four zeros B. Leading zeros in a field are optional C. Format is x:x:x:x:x:x:x:x, where x is a 16-bit hexadecimal field D. Successive fields of 0 are represented as "::" but only once in an address E. Hexadecimal digits A-F are case sensitive https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/ipv6-address-types.html To connect a Cisco wireless LAN controller to a wired network, which of the following would you use? Assume that this connection will carry traffic to and from APs. A. Console port B. Service port C. Distribution system port D. AP data port Your router has just received a packet that is destined to 10.1.1.97. Which entry in the routing table will be used to forward the packet? A. 10.1.1.0/25 B. 10.1.1.64/27 C. 0.0.0.0/0 D. 10.1.1.64/26 E. 10.1.1.32/27 F. 10.1.1.0/24 G. 10.1.1.80/28 Which features make IPv6 an improvement over IPv4 addressing? (Choose two) A. Uses Time to Live, or TTL, values in the header B. Security and mobility build into the standard C. Larger address space D. Offers approximately 4.3 billion addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/the-ipv6-address.html The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of Secure-shutdown. Which of the following answer must be true about this interface at this time? A. The show interface status command lists the interface status as connected. B. The show interface status command lists the interface status as err-disabled. C. The show port-security interface command could list a mode of shutdown or restrict, but not protect. D. The show port-security interface command could list a violation counter value of 10.

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources

These are the best CCNA training resources online:

Click Here to get the Cisco CCNA Gold Bootcamp, the most comprehensive and highest rated CCNA course online with a 4.8 star rating from over 30,000 public reviews. I recommend this as your primary study source to learn all the topics on the exam.

Want to take your practice tests to the next level? AlphaPrep’s purpose-built Cisco test engine has the largest question bank, adaptive questions, and advanced reporting which tells you exactly when you’re ready to pass the real exam. Click here for your free trial.

The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

The Cisco CCNA 200-301 practice exam tests include questions to test your knowledge and skills related to Cisco networking fundamentals, which helps you pass the actual exam.

The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Complete this form to get your score report

Our Recommended Premium CCNA Training Resources